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WCU PHYS 261 Final Actual Exam | Latest Version | Questions and Answers | Already Passed, Exams of Physiology

WCU PHYS 261 Final Actual Exam | Latest Version | Questions and Answers | Already Passed | (West Coast University)

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WCU PHYS 261 Final Actual Exam |
Latest Version | Questions and
Answers | Already Passed | (West
Coast University)
1)
The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the
A)
blood pressure.
B)
systemic pressure.
C)
circulatory pressure.
D)
mean arterial pressure.
E) pulse pressure.
2)
Increased blood volume
blood pressure.
A) decreases B) increases C) has no effect on
3)
In order to cause vasodilation of most vascular smooth muscle,
A)
acetylcholine combines with nicotinic receptors.
B)
acetylcholine combines with muscarinic receptors.
C) sympathetic stimulation is removed.
D)
norepinephrine combines with β1 receptors.
E)
norepinephrine combines with alpha receptors.
4)
A hemoglobin molecule is composed of
A)
three protein chains.
B)
four protein chains and four heme groups.
C)
four heme groups but no protein.
D)
two protein chains.
E)
four protein chains and nothing else.
5)
A normal adult hematocrit would be approximately
%.
A) 100 B) 75 C) 45 D) 10 E) 66
6)
Alveolar ventilation refers to the
A)
movement of air into and out of the alveoli.
B)
movement of air into and out of the lungs.
C)
movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.
D)
movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli.
E)
utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism.
7)
Type II alveolar cells
A)
are phagocytic.
B)
allow rapid diffusion of gases through their thin membranes.
C) secrete a chemical known as surfactant.
D)
all of the above
E)
none of the above
8)
Nucleic acids are polymers of units called
A)
ribose.
B)
bases.
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff

Partial preview of the text

Download WCU PHYS 261 Final Actual Exam | Latest Version | Questions and Answers | Already Passed and more Exams Physiology in PDF only on Docsity!

WCU PHYS 261 Final Actual Exam |

Latest Version | Questions and

Answers | Already Passed | (West

Coast University)

  1. The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the

A) blood pressure.

B) systemic pressure.

C) circulatory pressure.

D) mean arterial pressure.

E) pulse pressure.

  1. Increased blood volume blood pressure.

A) decreases B) increases C) has no effect on

  1. In order to cause vasodilation of most vascular smooth muscle,

A) acetylcholine combines with nicotinic receptors.

B) acetylcholine combines with muscarinic receptors.

C) sympathetic stimulation is removed.

D) norepinephrine combines with β 1

receptors.

E) norepinephrine combines with alpha receptors.

  1. A hemoglobin molecule is composed of

A) three protein chains.

B) four protein chains and four heme groups.

C) four heme groups but no protein.

D) two protein chains.

E) four protein chains and nothing else.

  1. A normal adult hematocrit would be approximately %.

A) 100 B) 75 C) 45 D) 10 E) 66

  1. Alveolar ventilation refers to the

A) movement of air into and out of the alveoli.

B) movement of air into and out of the lungs.

C) movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.

D) movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli.

E) utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism.

  1. Type II alveolar cells

A) are phagocytic.

B) allow rapid diffusion of gases through their thin membranes.

C) secrete a chemical known as surfactant.

D) all of the above

E) none of the above

  1. Nucleic acids are polymers of units called

A) ribose.

B) bases.

C) fatty acids.

D) amino acids.

E) nucleotides.

  1. Cell membranes are said to be

A) actively permeable.

B) impermeable.

C) freely permeable.

D) selectively permeable.

E) none of the above

  1. In humans, only

cells have flagella. A) sperm

B) intestine lining

C) stomach lining

D) respiratory tract lining

E) two of the above

  1. The addition of a phosphate group to a substrate is called. The enzyme that catalyzes this

reaction is referred to as a.

A) phosphorylation; kinase

B) proteolysis; kinase

C) proteolysis; peptidase

D) phosphorylation; phosphatase

E) None of the above represents the correct terminology.

  1. An allosteric modulator binds to

A) the active site.

B) the product.

C) a region of the enzyme other than the active site.

D) the surrounding tissue.

E) the substrate.

  1. The Nernst equation predicts

A) the membrane potential resulting from permeability to a single ion.

B) the membrane potential resulting from all permeable ions.

C) extracellular ion concentrations

D) intracellular ion concentrations.

E) the threshold membrane potential.

  1. Which ion(s) is/are higher in concentration inside the cell compared to outside?

A) sodium

B) more than one of the above

C) calcium

D) chloride

E) potassium

  1. Which is NOT housed in the medulla oblongata?

A) centers for blood pressure control

B) centers for control of eye movement

C) the pyramids, where tracts cross to the opposite side of the body

D) centers for control of vomiting

E) centers for control of breathing

  1. The structure that connects the two cerebral hemispheres is the

A) hippocampus.

B) basal nuclei.

C) gray "H."

D) suprachiasmatic nucleus.

E) corpus callosum.

D) B and C

E) all of the above

  1. When adenylyl cyclase is activated,

A) steroids are produced.

B) cAMP is formed.

C) cAMP is broken down.

D) protein kinases are metabolized.

E) calcium ions are released from intracellular stores.

  1. The increasingly forceful uterine contractions that lead to childbirth are an example of

A) negative feedback.

B) positive feedback.

C) effector shutdown.

D) receptor activation.

E) none of the above

  1. When a catecholamine or peptide hormone binds to receptors on the surface of a cell,

A) the cell becomes inactive.

B) a second messenger appears in the cytoplasm.

C) the cell membrane becomes less permeable.

D) the hormone is transported to the nucleus where it alters the activity of DNA.

E) none of the above

  1. When steroid hormones bind to their receptors,

A) gene transcription may start or stop.

B) protein kinases are activated.

C) adenylyl cyclase is activated.

D) cyclic nucleotides are formed.

E) G proteins are inhibited.

  1. The pituitary hormone that stimulates milk production by the mammary glands is

A) ACTH.

B) growth hormone.

C) prolactin.

D) FSH.

E) TSH.

  1. Exocrine glands, smooth muscles, and cardiac muscles are controlled by the

A) somatic motor division.

B) peripheral nervous system.

C) autonomic nervous system.

D) central nervous system.

E) enteric nervous system.

  1. The multiple thin, branched structures on a neuron whose main function is to receive incoming

signals are the

A) axons.

B) cell bodies.

C) dendrites.

D) somata.

E) none of the above

  1. The region where the axon terminal meets its target cell is called the

A) hillock. B) synapse. C) dendrites. D) nerve. E) collateral.

  1. Myelin is formed by

A) axons.

B) ependymal cells.

C) Schwann cells.

D) oligodendrocytes.

E) C and D

  1. Sweat glands contain

A) alpha receptors.

B) beta receptors.

C) cholinergic receptors.

D) all of the above

  1. The purpose of transverse tubules is to

A) conduct ATP molecules out of the mitochondria throughout the sarcoplasm.

B) ensure a supply of Ca

ions through the muscle fiber.

C) rapidly conduct action potentials to the interior of the muscle fiber.

D) ensure a supply of glycogen throughout the muscle sarcoplasm.

E) All of the above are true.

  1. The tension generated in a muscle fiber is directly proportional to the

A) number of nebulin and titin molecules present.

B) change in length of the thick filaments.

C) number of thick and thin filaments present.

D) change in length of the thin filaments.

E) number of crossbridges formed.

  1. Excitation-contraction coupling refers to

A) acetylcholine triggering the opening ion channels.

B) the chemical and electrical events that trigger the mechanical events in a muscle fiber.

C) the enzymatic removal of acetylcholine from the synapse, which can then allow relaxation to occur.

D) the arrival of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction due to its exocytosis from the axon terminal.

E) B and D

  1. A polysynaptic reflex has at least in the reflex pathway.

A) one synapse

B) two synapses

C) two neurons

D) three neurons

E) B and D

  1. In electrocardiography, a lead is a/an

A) pair of electrodes.

B) cable that attaches between the ECG machine and the body.

C) electrode.

  1. A heart rate of 125 beats per minute could be correctly termed

A) fibrillation.

B) a normal resting heart rate.

C) bradycardia.

D) an arrhythmia.

E) tachycardia.

  1. The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the

A) stroke volume.

B) cardiac output.

C) cardiac reserve.

D) end-systolic volume.

E) end-diastolic volume.

  1. The cardiac output is equal to

A) the difference between the end-diastolic volume and the end-systolic volume.

B) the product of heart rate and blood pressure.

C) the stroke volume less the end-systolic volume.

D) the product of heart rate and stroke volume.

  1. The term used to describe the amount of blood in the ventricle available to be pumped out of the

heart during the next contraction is

A) heart rate (HR).

  1. movement from the glomerulus to the nephron lumen

B. filtration

  1. movement from the peritubular capillaries to the nephron lumen

D. secretion

  1. The primary osmoreceptors are located in the

A) medulla.

B) pons.

C) stomach.

D) kidney.

E) hypothalamus.

  1. ACE converts

A) angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

B) renin to angiotensinogen.

C) angiotensin II to aldosterone.

D) renin to aldosterone.

E) angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.

  1. Aldosterone

A) functions in pH regulation.

B) increases the concentration of sodium in urine.

C) promotes sodium retention in the kidneys.

D) helps decrease blood volume.

E) is secreted in response to elevated levels of sodium in the blood.

  1. The is a significant site of absorption of water and electrolytes, but NOT of nutrients.

A) large intestine

B) mouth

C) stomach

D) small intestine

E) none of the above

  1. The motor activity of the muscularis externa is controlled by the

A) myenteric plexus.

B) motilin.

C) migrating motor complex.

D) extrinsic neurons.

E) submucosal plexus.

  1. Nutrient absorption occurs primarily in the

A) stomach.

B) small intestine.

C) large intestine.

D) liver.

E) A and C

  1. The feeding and satiety centers are located in the

A) cerebrum.

B) pons.

C) medulla oblongata.

D) cerebellum.

E) hypothalamus.

  1. Convective heat loss occurs when

A) warm air rises from the body's surface.

B) one swims in water below body temperature.

C) a cooler object rests on the body's surface.

D) water evaporates from the skin's surface.

E) all of the above

Match the nutrient to its primary fate.

A. carbohydrate

B. protein

C. fat

  1. used immediately for energy

A. carbohydrate

  1. synthesis of tissues

B. protein

  1. storage

C. fat

  1. The adrenal medulla produces

A) mineralocorticoids.

B) glucocorticoids.

C) corticosteroids.

D) catecholamines.

E) androgens.

  1. Excess secretion of growth hormone during adulthood will cause

A) acromegaly.

B) goiter.

C) giantism.

D) diabetes.

E) exophthalmus.

  1. Lymphoid tissues include

A) spleen.

B) lymph nodes.

C) bone marrow.

D) thymus.

E) all of the above

  1. Swelling and soreness of the lymph nodes indicate that

A) the immune system is incapable of working.

B) too much or improper exercise has been undertaken.

C) dangerous cancerous changes are occurring in the immune system.

D) immune cells are fighting infection.

E) none of the above

  1. Cytokines function by

A) acting as messengers for growth and activity of other cells.

B) poisoning and killing invading cells.

C) digesting invading cells.

D) A and B

E) A, B, and C

  1. An inflammatory response is triggered when

A) T lymphocytes release interferon.

B) neutrophils phagocytize bacteria.

C) blood flow to an area increases.

D) red blood cells release pyrogens.

E) mast cells release granules containing histamine and heparin.

  1. The specificity of an antibody is determined by

A) the antibody class.

B) the fixed segment.

C) the antigenic determinants.

D) the size of the antibody.

E) the variable region.

  1. A person's blood type is determined by

A) the presence or absence of specific glycoprotein molecules on their cell membrane.

  1. The structure that transports the ovum to the uterus is the

A) myometrium.

B) infundibulum.

C) fallopian tube.

D) uterosacral ligament.

E) vagina.

  1. The average length of the menstrual cycle is

A) 10 days. B) 14 days. C) 21 days. D) 28 days. E) 35 days.

  1. The surge in LH that occurs during the middle of the ovarian cycle triggers

A) ovulation.

B) menopause.

C) menstruation.

D) atresia.

E) follicle maturation.

  1. Emission is defined as

A) engorgement of the penis.

B) loss of erection following orgasm.

C) movement of sperm into the urethra.

D) movement of sperm out of the penis.

E) failure to achieve ejaculation.

  1. Sperm cannot fertilize an egg until they

A) undergo decapitation.

B) are in the vagina for 3 days.

C) lose their acrosome.

D) undergo activation.

E) undergo capacitation.

  1. The hormone primarily responsible for milk synthesis is

A) growth hormone.

B) progesterone.

C) prolactin.

D) estrogen.

E) oxytocin.

  1. The hormone primarily responsible for the milk let-down reflex is

A) growth hormone.

B) prolactin.

C) estrogen.

D) oxytocin.

E) progesterone.

Match the cells/tissue with the hormone it secretes.

A. Leydig cells

B. granulosa cells

C. corpus luteum

D. placenta

  1. progesterone, early in pregnancy

C. corpus luteum

  1. human chorionic gonadotropin

D. placenta

  1. estrogen in nonpregnant woman

B. granulosa cells

  1. testosterone

A. Leydig cells

  1. The following is a list of several levels of organization that make up the human body.
  1. tissue
  2. cell
  3. organ
  4. molecule
  5. organism
  6. organ system

The correct order from the smallest to the largest is

A) 6, 4, 5, 2, 3, 1.

B) 2, 4, 1, 3, 6, 5.

C) 4, 2, 1, 3, 6, 5.

D) 4, 2, 1, 6, 3, 5.

E) 4, 2, 3, 1, 6, 5.

97) What is a nocebo effect? DO NOT ANSWER THIS QUESTION ON THE SCANTRON!

The phenomenon whereby a patient who has been informed of the side effects of a drug he is taking is

more likely to experience some of the side effects than an otherwise similar patient recei ving the same

drug who has not been so informed.

  1. The atomic number of an element is equivalent to

A) the number of neutrons in the nucleus.

B) the number of protons plus neutrons in the nucleus.

C) the number of electrons in the outer shell.

D) the electrical charge of an atom.

E) the number of protons in the nucleus.

  1. Each amino acid differs from others in the

A) number of central carbon atoms.

B) number of peptide bonds in the molecule.

C) size of the amino group.

D) chemical structure of the R group.

E) number of carboxyl groups.

  1. A nucleotide consists of

A) a phosphate group and a nitrogenous base.

B) a five-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group.

C) a five-carbon sugar and an amino acid.

D) a five-carbon sugar and a nitrogenous base.

E) a five-carbon sugar and phosphate group.

  1. The most important energy-transferring compound in cells is

A) fructose.

B) deoxyribonucleic acid.

C) adenosine triphosphate.

D) glucose.

E) protein.

  1. The lumen of a hollow organ such as the stomach is considered to be part of the

environment.106)

A) external B) internal

  1. The basic structural and functional unit of the human body is

A) protein.

B) the organ system.

C) the organ.

D) the cell.

E) tissue.

  1. The watery medium that surrounds a cell is known as

A) cytoplasm.

D. mitochondria

E. peroxisomes

  1. These degrade long chain fatty acids and toxic foreign molecules.

E. peroxisomes

  1. The digestive system of a cell, degrading and/or recycling bacterial or organic components.

C. lysosomes

  1. Modifies proteins and packages them into secretory vesicles for export from the cell.

B. Golgi apparatus

  1. Why do some normal cells fail to respond to a chemical signal?

A) Some cells are completely without ligands.

B) Signal chemicals often break down before reaching a distant target.

C) Some cells lack the necessary receptors.

D) Some cells are completely without receptors.

E) Chemical signals are only delivered to specific cells.

  1. Negative feedback

A) can prevent the initial disturbance of homeostasis.

B) reinforces the stimulus.

C) stabilizes the variable being regulated.

D) none of the above

  1. The pituitary hormone that controls the release of glucocorticoids from the adrenal cortex is

A) ACTH. B) FSH. C) LH. D) STH. E)

TSH.

Match the hormone with its source.

A. prolactin

B. insulin

C. aldosterone

D. melatonin

E. calcitonin

F. epinephrine

  1. adrenal medulla

F. epinephrine

  1. The structure that carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra is the

A) testis.

B) seminal vesicle.

C) ejaculatory duct.

D) corpus cavernosum.

E) ductus deferens.

  1. The principal hormone secreted by the corpus luteum is

A) estrogen.

B) progesterone.

C) estradiol.

D) FSH.

E) LH.

Match each hormone with its the primary source.

A. prolactin

B. insulin

C. aldosterone

D. melatonin

E. calcitonin

F. oxytocin

  1. pancreas

B. insulin

  1. thyroid

E. calcitonin

  1. anterior pituitary

A. prolactin

  1. posterior pituitary

C. aldosterone

  1. pineal

D. melatonin

A. a collection of similar cells that carry out similar functions

B. the smallest living unit

C. a collection of different tissues that carry out related functions

D. groups of organs functioning in a coordinated manner

  1. cell B. the smallest living unit

  2. tissue A. a collection of similar cells that carry out similar functions

  3. organs C. a collection of different tissues that carry out related functions

  4. organ systems D. groups of organs functioning in a coordinated manner