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UTAH VALLEY UNIVERSITY NUR 345 SERIESFINAL EXAM PASADO, Study notes of Nursing

4. A patient who was admitted to the hospital with hyperglycemia and newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is scheduled for discharge the second day after admission. When implementing patient teaching, what is the priority action forthe nurse? ⦁ Instruct about the increased risk for cardiovascular disease. ⦁ Provide detailed information about dietary control of glucose. ⦁ Teach glucose self-monitoring and medication administration. ⦁ Give information about the effects of exercise on glucose control. ANS: C When time is limited, the nurse should focus on the priorities of teaching. In this situation, the patient should know how to test blood glucose and administer medications to control glucose levels. The patient will need further teaching about the role of diet, exercise, various medications, and the many potential complications of diabetes, but these topics can be addressed through planning for appropriate referrals.

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2023/2024

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UTAH VALLEY UNIVERSITY
NUR 345 SERIESFINAL EXAM PASADO
4. A patient who was admitted to the hospital with hyperglycemia and
newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is scheduled for discharge the second
day after admission. When implementing patient teaching, what is the
priority action forthe nurse?
Instruct about the increased risk for cardiovascular disease.
Provide detailed information about dietary control of glucose.
Teach glucose self-monitoring and medication administration.
Give information about the effects of
exercise on glucose control. ANS: C
When time is limited, the nurse should focus on the priorities of teaching.
In this situation, the patient should know how to test blood glucose and
administer medications to control glucose levels. The patient will need
further teaching about the role of diet, exercise, various medications, and
the many potential complications of diabetes, but these topics can be
addressed through planning for appropriate referrals.
A 75-year-old patient is admitted for pancreatitis. Which tool would
be the most appropriate for the nurse to use during the admission
assessment?
Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST-10)
Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale, Revised (CIWA-Ar)
Screening Test-Geriatric Version (SMAST-G)
Mini-
Mental State
Examination
ANS: C
Because the abuse of alcohol is a common factor associated with the
development of pancreatitis, the first assessment step is to screen for
alcohol use using a validated screening questionnaire. The SMAST-G is a
short-form alcoholism screening instrument tailored specifically to the
needs of the older adult. If the patient scores positively on the SMAST-G,
then the CIWA-Ar would be a useful tool for determining treatment. The
DAST-10 provides more general information regarding substance use. The
Mini-Mental State Examination is used to screen for cognitive
impairment.
1. The sister of a patient diagnosed with BRCA gene–related breast
cancer asks the nurse, “Do you think I should be tested for the gene?”
Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
“In most cases, breast cancer is not caused by the BRCA gene.”
“It depends on how you will feel if the test is positive for the BRCA gene.”
“There are many things to consider before deciding to have genetic testing.”
“You should decide first whether you are willing to have a
bilateral mastectomy.” ANS: C
Although presymptomatic testing for genetic disorders allows patients to
take action (such as mastectomy) to prevent the development of some
genetically caused disorders, patients also need to consider that test results
in their medical record may affect insurance, employability, etc.
Telling a patient that a decision about mastectomy should be made before
testing implies that the nurse has made a judgment about what the patient
should do if the test is positive. Although the patient may need to think
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UTAH VALLEY UNIVERSITY

NUR 345 SERIESFINAL EXAM PASADO

  1. A patient who was admitted to the hospital with hyperglycemia and newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is scheduled for discharge the second day after admission. When implementing patient teaching, what is the priority action forthe nurse?
  • Instruct about the increased risk for cardiovascular disease.
  • Provide detailed information about dietary control of glucose.
  • Teach glucose self-monitoring and medication administration.
  • Give information about the effects of exercise on glucose control. ANS: C When time is limited, the nurse should focus on the priorities of teaching. In this situation, the patient should know how to test blood glucose and administer medications to control glucose levels. The patient will need further teaching about the role of diet, exercise, various medications, and the many potential complications of diabetes, but these topics can be addressed through planning for appropriate referrals.
  • A 75-year-old patient is admitted for pancreatitis. Which tool would be the most appropriate for the nurse to use during the admission assessment?
  • Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST-10)
  • Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale, Revised (CIWA-Ar)
  • Screening Test-Geriatric Version (SMAST-G)
  • Mini- Mental State Examination ANS: C Because the abuse of alcohol is a common factor associated with the development of pancreatitis, the first assessment step is to screen for alcohol use using a validated screening questionnaire. The SMAST-G is a short-form alcoholism screening instrument tailored specifically to the needs of the older adult. If the patient scores positively on the SMAST-G, then the CIWA-Ar would be a useful tool for determining treatment. The DAST-10 provides more general information regarding substance use. The Mini-Mental State Examination is used to screen for cognitive impairment.
  1. The sister of a patient diagnosed with BRCA gene–related breast cancer asks the nurse, “Do you think I should be tested for the gene?” Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
  • “In most cases, breast cancer is not caused by the BRCA gene.”
  • “It depends on how you will feel if the test is positive for the BRCA gene.”
  • “There are many things to consider before deciding to have genetic testing .”
  • “You should decide first whether you are willing to have a bilateral mastectomy.” ANS: C Although presymptomatic testing for genetic disorders allows patients to take action (such as mastectomy) to prevent the development of some genetically caused disorders, patients also need to consider that test results in their medical record may affect insurance, employability, etc. Telling a patient that a decision about mastectomy should be made before testing implies that the nurse has made a judgment about what the patient should do if the test is positive. Although the patient may need to think

about her reaction if the test is positive, other issues (e.g., insurance) also should be considered. Although most breast cancers are not related to BRCA gene mutations, the patient with a BRCA gene mutation has a markedly increased risk for breast cancer.

  1. The nurse in the outpatient clinic has obtained health histories for these new patients. Which patient may need referral for genetic testing?
  • 35-year-old patient whose maternal grandparents died after strokes at ages 90 and 96
  • 18-year-old patient with a positive pregnancy test whose first child has cerebral palsy - 34-year-old patient who has a sibling with newly diagnosed polycystic kidney disease
  • 50-year-old patient with a history of cigarette smoking who is complaining of dyspnea ANS: C The adult form of polycystic kidney disease is an autosomal dominant disorder and frequently it is asymptomatic until the patient is older. Presymptomatic testing will give the patient information that will be useful in guiding lifestyle and childbearing choices. The other patients do not have any indication of genetic disorders or need for genetic testing.
  • An adolescent patient seeks care in the emergency department after sharing needles forheroin injection with a friend who has hepatitis B. To provide immediate protection from infection, what medication will the nurse administer?
  • Corticosteroids
  • Gamma globulin
  • Hepatitis B vaccine
  • Fresh frozen plasma ANS: B The patient should first receive antibodies for hepatitis B from injection of gamma globulin. The hepatitis B vaccination series should be started to provide active immunity. Fresh frozen plasma and corticosteroids will not be effective in preventing hepatitis B in the patient.
  1. A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer that is classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
  • “The cancer involves only the cervix .”
  • “The cancer cells look almost like normal cells.”
  • “Further testing is needed to determine the spread of the cancer.”
  • “It is difficult to determine the original site of the cervical cancer.” ANS: A Cancer in situ indicates that the cancer is localized to the cervix and is not invasive at this time. Cell differentiation is not indicated by clinical staging. Because the cancer is in situ, the origin is the cervix. Further testing is not indicated given that the cancer has not spread.
  • External-beam radiation is planned for a patient with cervical cancer. What instructions should the nurse give to the patient to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation?
  • Test all stools for the presence of blood.
  • Maintain a high-residue, high-fiber diet.

The patient’s respiratory alkalosis is caused by the increased respiratory rate associated with pain and anxiety. The nurse’s first action should be to medicate the patient for pain. Although the nasogastric suction may contribute to the alkalosis, it is not appropriate to discontinue the tube when the patient needs gastric suction. The health care provider may be notified about the ABGs but is likely to instruct the nurse to medicate for pain. The patient will not be able to take slow, deep breaths when experiencing pain.

  • Which topic is most important for the nurse to discuss preoperatively with a patient who is scheduled for abdominal surgery for an open cholecystectomy?
  • Care for the surgical incision
  • Medications used during surgery
  • Deep breathing and coughing techniques
  • Oral antibiotic therapy after discharge home ANS: C Preoperative teaching, demonstration, and redemonstration of deep breathing and coughing are needed on patients having abdominal surgery to prevent postoperative atelectasis. Incisional care and the importance of completing antibiotics are better discussed after surgery, when the patient will be more likely to retain this information. The patient does not usually need information about medications that are used intraoperatively.
  • The nurse is caring for a patient the first postoperative day following a laparotomy for a small bowel obstruction. The nurse notices new bright-red drainage about 5 cm in diameter on the dressing. Which action should the nurse take first?
  • Reinforce the dressing.
  • Apply an abdominal binder.
  • Take the patient’s vital signs.
  • Recheck the dressing in 1 hour for increased drainage. ANS: C New bright-red drainage may indicate hemorrhage, and the nurse should initially assess the patient’s vital signs for tachycardia and hypotension. The surgeon should then be notified of the drainage and the vital signs. The dressing may be changed or reinforced, based on the surgeon’s orders or institutional policy. The nurse should not wait an hour to recheck the dressing.
  • Which prescribed medication should the nurse give first to a patient who has just been admitted to a hospital with acute angle-closure glaucoma?
  • Morphine sulfate 4 mg IV
  • Mannitol (Osmitrol) 100 mg IV
  • Betaxolol (Betoptic) 1 drop in each eye
  • Acetazolamide (Diamox) 250 mg orally ANS: B The most immediate concern for the patient is to lower intraocular pressure, which will occur most rapidly with IV administration of a hyperosmolar diuretic such as mannitol. The other medications are also appropriate for a patient with glaucoma but would not be the first medication administered.
  • A patient’s capillary blood glucose level is 120 mg/dL 6 hours after the

nurse initiated a parenteral nutrition (PN) infusion. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to

  • obtain a venous blood glucose specimen.
  • slow the infusion rate of the PN infusion.
  • Recheck the capillary blood glucose in 4 to 6 hours.
  • notify the health care provider of the glucose level. ANS: C Mild hyperglycemia is expected during the first few days after PN is started and requires ongoing monitoring. Because the glucose elevation is small and expected, notification of the health care provider is not necessary. There is no need to obtain a venous specimen for comparison. Slowing the rate of the infusion is beyond the nurse’s scope of practice and will decrease the patient’s nutritional intake.
  • A patient being admitted with an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis reports crampy abdominal pain and passing 15 or bloodier stools a day. The nurse will plan to
  • administer IV metoclopramide (Reglan).
  • Discontinue the patient’s oral food intake.
  • administercobalamin (vitamin B 12 ) injections.
  • teach the patient about total colectomy surgery. ANS: B An initial therapy for an acute exacerbation of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is to rest the bowel by making the patient NPO. Metoclopramide increases peristalsis and will worsen symptoms. Cobalamin (vitamin B 12 ) is absorbed in the ileum, which is not affected by ulcerative colitis. Although total colectomy is needed for some patients, there is no indication that this patient is a candidate.
  • Which nursing action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a 35-year- old male patient admitted with an exacerbation of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?
  • Restrict oral fluid intake.
  • Monitor stools for blood.
  • Ambulate four times daily.
  • Increa se dietary fiber intake. ANS: B Because anemia or hemorrhage may occur with IBD, stools should be assessed for the presence of blood. The other actions would not be appropriate for the patient with IBD. Because dietary fiber may increase gastrointestinal (GI) motility and exacerbate the diarrhea, severe fatigue is common with IBD exacerbations, and dehydration may occur.
  • Which patient statement indicates that the nurse’s teaching about sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) for ulcerative colitis has been effective?
  • “The medication will be tapered if I need surgery.”
  • “I will need to use a sunscreen when I am outdoors.”
  • “I will need to avoid contact with people who are sick.”
  • “The medication will prevent infections

d o m i n a l d i s t e n t i o n. AN S: D Abdominal distention is seen in lower intestinal obstruction. Referred back pain is not a common clinical manifestation of intestinal obstruction. Metabolic alkalosis is common in high intestinal obstruction because of the loss of HCl acid from vomiting. Projectile vomiting is associated with higher intestinal obstruction.

  • A 47-year-old female patient is transferred from the recovery room to a surgical unit after a transverse colostomy. The nurse observes the stoma to be deep pink with edema and a small amount of sanguineous drainage. The nurse should
  • place ice packs around the stoma.
  • notify the surgeon about the stoma.
  • monitor the stoma every 30 minutes.
  • Document stoma assessment findings. ANS: D The stoma appearance indicates good circulation to the stoma. There is no indication that surgical intervention is needed or that frequent stoma monitoring is required. Swelling of the stoma is normal for 2 to 3 weeks after surgery, and an ice pack is not needed.
  • Which information will the nurse include in teaching a patient who had a proctocolectomy and ileostomy for ulcerative colitis?
  • Restrict fluid intake to prevent constant liquid drainage from the stoma.
  • Use care when eating high-fiber foods to avoid obstruction of the ileum.
  • Irrigate the ileostomy daily to avoid having to wear a drainage appliance.
  • Change the pouch every day to prevent leakage of contents onto the skin. ANS: B High-fiber foods are introduced gradually and should be well chewed to avoid obstruction of the ileostomy. Patients with ileostomies lose the absorption of water in

the colon and need to take in increased amounts of fluid. The pouch should be drained frequently but is changed every 5 to 7 days. The drainage from an ileostomy is liquid and continuous, so control by irrigation is not possible.

  • The nurse will determine that teaching a 67-year-old man to irrigate his new colostomy has been effective if the patient
  • inserts the irrigation tubing 4 to 6 inches into the stoma.
  • Hangs the irrigating container 18 inches above the stoma.
  • stops the irrigation and removes the irrigating cone if cramping occurs.
  • fills the irrigating container with 1000 to 2000 mL of lukewarm tap water. ANS: B The irrigating container should be hung 18 to 24 inches above the stoma. If cramping occurs, the irrigation should be temporarily stopped and the cone left in place. Five hundred to 1000 mL of water should be used for irrigation. An irrigation cone, rather than tubing, should be inserted into the stoma; 4 to 6 inches would be too far for safe insertion.
  • A 34-year-old female patient with a new ileostomy asks how much drainage to expect. The nurse explains that after the bowel adjusts to the ileostomy, the usual drainage will be about cups.
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5 A N S : A After the proximal small bowel adapts to reabsorb more fluid, the average amount of ileostomy drainage is about 500 mL daily. One cup is about 240 mL.
  • The nurse admitting a patient with acute diverticulitis explains that the initial plan of care is to
  • Administer IV fluids.
  • give stool softeners and enemas.
  • order a diet high in fiber and fluids.
  • prepare the patient for colonoscopy. ANS: A A patient with acute diverticulitis will be NPO and given parenteral fluids. A diet high in fiber and fluids will be implemented before discharge. Bulk-forming laxatives, rather than stool softeners, are usually given, and these will be implemented later in the hospitalization. The patient with acute diverticulitis will not have enemas or a colonoscopy because of the risk for perforation and peritonitis.
  1. Administration of hepatitis B vaccine to a healthy 18-year-old patient has been effective when a specimen of the patient’s blood reveals
  • HBsAg.
  • anti-HBs.
  • anti-HBcIgG.
  • a n t i - H B c I g M. A N S : B The presence of surface antibody to HBV (anti-HBs) is a marker of a positive response to the vaccine. The other laboratory values indicate current infection with HBV.
  1. The nurse will plan to teach the patient diagnosed with acute hepatitis B about
  • side effects of nucleotide analogs.
  • Measures for improving the appetite.
  • ways to increase activity and exercise.
  • administering α-interferon (Intron A). ANS: B Maintaining adequate nutritional intake is important for regeneration of hepatocytes. Interferon and antivirals may be used for chronic hepatitis B, but they are not prescribed for acute hepatitis B infection. Rest is recommended.
  • Which laboratory test result will the nurse monitor when evaluating the effects of therapy for a 62-year-old female patient who has acute pancreatitis?
  • Calcium
  • Bilirubin
  • Amylase

P o t a

s s i u m A N S : C Amylase is elevated in acute pancreatitis. Although changes in the other values may occur, they would not be useful in evaluating whether the prescribed therapies have been effective.

  • Which assessment finding would the nurse need to report most quickly to the health care provider regarding a patient with acute pancreatitis?
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Hypotonic bowel sounds
  • Abdominal tenderness and guarding
  • Muscle twitching and finger numbness ANS: D Muscle twitching and finger numbness indicate hypocalcemia , which may lead to tetany unless calcium gluconate is administered. Although the other findings should also be reported to the health care provider, they do not indicate complications that require rapid action.
  • The nurse will ask a 64-year-old patient being admitted with acute pancreatitis specifically about a history of
  • diabetes mellitus.
  • high-protein diet.
  • cigarette smoking.
  • Alc oh ol con su mp tio n. AN S: D Alcohol use is one of the most common risk factors for pancreatitis in the United States. Cigarette smoking, diabetes, and high-protein diets are not risk factors.
  • The nurse will teach a patient with chronic pancreatitis to take the prescribed pancrelipase (Viokase)
  • at bedtime.

notified after the nurse checks the patient’s calcium level. There is no indication that the patient needs to have the BP rechecked or that there is any arm pain.

  • A 67-year-old male patient with acute pancreatitis has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction and is NPO. Which information obtained by the nurse indicates that these therapies have been effective?
  • Bowel sounds are present.
  • Grey Turner sign resolves.
  • Electrolyte levels are normal.
  • Abdo minal pain is decreased. ANS: D NG suction and NPO status will decrease the release of pancreatic enzymes into the pancreas and decrease pain. Although bowel sounds may be hypotonic with acute pancreatitis, the presence of bowel sounds does not indicate that treatment with NG suction and NPO status has been effective. Electrolyte levels may be abnormal with NG suction and must be replaced by appropriate IV infusion. Although Grey Turner sign will eventually resolve, it would not be appropriate to wait for this to occur to determine whether treatment was effective.
  • Which assessment finding is of most concern for a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis?
  • Absent bowel sounds
  • Abdominal tenderness
  • Left upper quadrant pain
  • Pa lpable abdom inal mass ANS: D A palpable abdominal mass may indicate the presence of a pancreatic abscess, which will require rapid surgical drainage to prevent sepsis. Absent bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness, and left upper quadrant pain are common in acute pancreatitis and do not require rapid action to prevent further complications.
  • The nurse is planning care for a 48-year-old woman with acute severe pancreatitis. The highest priority patient outcome is - Maintaining normal respiratory function.
  • expressing satisfaction with pain control.
  • developing no ongoing pancreatic disease.
  • having adequate fluid and electrolyte balance. ANS: A Respiratory failure can occur as a complication of acute pancreatitis, and maintenance of adequate respiratory function is the priority goal. The other outcomes would also be appropriate for the patient.
  • Which assessment information will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider about a patient with acute cholecystitis?
  • The patient’s urine is bright yellow. - The patient’s stools are tan colored.
  • The patient has increased pain after eating.
  • The patient complains of chronic heartburn. ANS: B Tan or grey stools indicate biliary obstruction, which requires rapid intervention to resolve. The other data are not unusual for a patient with this diagnosis, although the nurse would also report the other assessment information to the health care provider
  • A 51-year-old woman had an incisional cholecystectomy 6 hours ago. The nurse will place the highest priority on assisting the patient to
  • choose low-fat foods from the menu.
  • perform leg exercises hourly while awake.
  • ambulate the evening of the operative day.
  • Turn, cough, and deep breathe every 2 hours. ANS: D Postoperative nursing careafter a cholecystectomy focuses on prevention of respiratory complications because the surgical incision is high in the abdomen and impairs coughing and deep breathing. The other nursing actions are also important to implement but are not as high a priority as ensuring adequate ventilation.
  • Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has been diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B?
  • Advise limiting alcohol intake to 1 drink daily.
  • Schedule for liver cancer screening every 6 months.
  • Initiate administration of the hepatitis C vaccine series.
  • Monitor anti-hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs) levels annually. ANS: B Patients with chronic hepatitis are at higher risk for development of liver cancer, and should be screened for liver cancer every 6 to 12 months. Patients with chronic hepatitis are advised to completely avoid alcohol. There is no hepatitis C vaccine. Because anti-HBs is present whenever there has been a past hepatitis B infection or vaccination, there is no need to regularly monitor for this antibody.
  • A nurse is considering which patient to admit to the same room as a patient who had a liver transplant 3 weeks ago and is now hospitalized with acute rejection. Which patient would be the best choice?
  • Patient who is receiving chemotherapy for liver cancer
  • Patient who is receiving treatment for acute hepatitis C
  • Patient who has a wound infection after cholecystectomy
  • Patient who requires pain management for chronic pancreatitis ANS: D The patient with chronic pancreatitis doesnot present an infection risk to the immunosuppressed patient who had a liver transplant. The other patients either are at risk for infection or currently have an infection, which will place the immunosuppressed patient at risk for infection.
  • In reviewing the medical record shown in the accompanying figure for a patient admitted with acute pancreatitis, the nurse sees that the

peripheral edema is resolved. ANS: D Because edema is a common clinical manifestation of glomerulonephritis, resolution of the edema indicates that the prescribed therapies have been effective. Nitrites will be negative and the patient will not experience dysuria because the patient does not have a urinary tract infection. Antibodies to streptococcus will persist after a streptococcal infection.

  • To preventrecurrence of uric acid renal calculi , the nurse teaches the patient to avoid eating
  • milk and cheese.
  • Sardines and liver.
  • legumes and dried fruit.
  • spin ach, chocolat e, and tea. ANS: B Organ meats and fish such as sardines increase purine levels and uric acid. Spinach, chocolate, and tomatoes should be avoided in patients who have oxalate stones. Milk, dairy products, legumes, and dried fruits may increase the incidence of calcium-containing stones.
  • The nurse teaches a 64-year-old woman to prevent the recurrence of renal calculi by
  • using a filter to strain all urine.
  • avoiding dietary sources of calcium.
  • choosing diuretic fluids such as coffee.
  • drinking 2000 to 3000 mL of fluid a day. ANS: D A fluid intake of 2000 to 3000 mL daily is recommended to help flush out minerals before stones can form. Avoidance of calcium is not usually recommended for patients with renal calculi. Coffee tends to increase stone recurrence. There is no need for a patient to strain all urine routinely after a stone has passed, and this will not prevent stones.
  • A 55-year-old woman admitted for shoulder surgery asks the nurse for a perineal pad, stating that laughing or coughing causes leakage of urine .Which intervention is most appropriate to include in the care plan?
  • Assist the patient to the bathroom q3hr.
  • Place a commode at the patient’s bedside.
  • Demonstrate how to perform the Credé maneuver.
  • Teach the patient how to perform Kegel exercises. ANS: D Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles will help reduce stress incontinence. The Credé maneuver is used to help empty the bladder for patients with overflow incontinence. Placing the commode close to the bedside and assisting the patient to the bathroom are helpful for functional incontinence.
  • A patient admitted to the hospital with pneumonia has a

history of functional urinary incontinence. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?

  • Demonstrate the use of the Credé maneuver.
  • Teach exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor.
  • Place a bedside commode close to the patient’s bed.
  • Use an ultrasound scanner to check postvoiding residuals. ANS: C Modifications in the environment make it easier to avoid functional incontinence. Checking for residual urine and performing the Credé maneuver are interventions for overflow incontinence. Kegel exercises are useful for stress incontinence.
  • A patient who had surgery for creation of an ileal conduit 3 days ago will not look at the stoma and requests that only the ostomy nurse specialist does the stoma care. The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of
  • anxiety related to effects of procedure on lifestyle.
  • Disturbed body image related to change in function.
  • readiness for enhanced coping related to need for information.
  • self-care deficit, toileting, related to denial of altered body function. ANS: B The patient’s unwillingness to look at the stoma or participate in care indicates that disturbed body image is the best diagnosis. No data suggest that the impact on lifestyle is a concern for the patient. The patient does not appear to be ready for enhanced coping. The patient’s insistence that only the ostomy nurse care for the stoma indicates that denial is not present.
  • A 76-year-old with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is agitated and confused, with a markedly distended bladder. Which intervention prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse implement first?
  • Insert a urinary retention catheter.
  • Schedule an intravenous pyelogram (IVP).
  • Draw blood for a serum creatinine level.
  • Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 0. mg PO. ANS: A The patient’s history and clinical manifestations are consistent with acute urinary retention, and the priority action is to relieve the retention by catheterization. The BUN and creatinine measurements can be obtained after the catheter is inserted. The patient’s agitation may resolve once the bladder distention is corrected, and sedative drugs should be used cautiously in older patients. The IVP is an appropriate test but does not need to be done urgently.
  • Which nursing action is of highest priority for a 68-year-old patient with renal calculi who is being admitted to the hospital with gross hematuria and severe colicky left flank pain?
  • Administer prescribed analgesics.
  • Monitor temperature every 4 hours.
  • Encourage increased oral fluid intake.
  • Give antiemetics as needed for nausea. ANS: A Although all of the nursing actions may be used for patients with renal lithiasis, the

N S : B , D

Meats contain purines, which are metabolized to uric acid. The other foods might be restricted in patients who have calcium or oxalate stones.

  1. A patient who has acute glomerulonephritis is hospitalized with hyperkalemia. Which information will the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the prescribed calcium gluconate IV?
  • Urine volume
  • Calcium level
  • Cardiac rhythm
  • N e u r o l o g i c s t a t u s A N S : C The calcium gluconate helps prevent dysrhythmias that might be caused by the hyperkalemia. The nurse will monitor the other data as well, but these will not be helpful in determining the effectiveness of the calcium gluconate.
  • A patient will need vascular access for hemodialysis. Which statement by the nurse accurately describes an advantage of a fistula over a graft?
  • A fistula is much less likely to clot.
  • A fistula increases patient mobility.
  • A fistula can accommodate larger needles.
  • A fistula can be used sooner after

surgery. ANS: A Arteriovenous (AV) fistulas are much less likely to clot than grafts, although it takes longer for them to mature to the point where they can be used for dialysis. The choice of an AV fistula or a graft does not have an impact on needle size or patient mobility.

  • When caring for a patient with a left arm arteriovenous fistula, which action will the nurse include in the plan of care to maintain the patency of the fistula?
  • Auscultate for a bruit at the fistula site.
  • Assess the quality of the left radial pulse.
  • Compare blood pressures in the left and right arms.
  • Irrigate the fistula site with saline every 8 to 12 hours. ANS: A The presence of a thrill and bruit indicates adequate blood flow through the fistula. Pulse rate and quality are not good indicators of fistula patency. Blood pressures should never be obtained on the arm with a fistula. Irrigation of the fistula might damage the fistula, and typically only dialysis staff would access the fistula. 25.A 72-year-old patient with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is admitted with acute urinary retention and elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. Which prescribed therapy should the nurse implement first?
  • Insert urethral catheter.
  • Obtain renal ultrasound.
  • Draw a complete blood count.
  • Infuse normal saline at 50 mL/hour. ANS: A The patient’s elevation in BUN is most likely associated with hydronephrosis caused by the acute urinary retention, so the insertion of a retention catheter is the first action to prevent ongoing postrenal failure for this patient. The other actions also are appropriate, but should be implemented after the retention catheter.
  1. Which laboratory value should the nurse review to determine whether a patient’s hypothyroidism is caused by a problem with the anteriorpituitary gland or with the thyroid gland?
  • Thyroxine (T 4 ) level
  • Triiodothyronine (T 3 ) level
  • Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level
  • Thyrotropin- releasing hormone (TRH) level ANS: C A low TSH level indicates that the patient’s hypothyroidism is caused by decreased anterior pituitary secretion of TSH. Low T 3 and T 4 levels are not diagnostic of the primary cause of the hypothyroidism. TRH levels indicate the function of the hypothalamus.
  1. Which action by a new registered nurse (RN) caring for a patient with a goiter and possible hyperthyroidism indicates that