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ULTIMATE EMT FISDAP 2025 EXAM
COLLECTION – REAL QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS
A 24 year old female responds to a sternal rub by opening her eyes and moaning incomprehensibly. She tries to push your hands away from her sternum. What is her Glasgow Coma Scale score? - Answer-- 9 You are at an amusement park when you witness a 19 year old male being stabbed in the arm. After assuring the scene is safe, you approach and see that he is experiencing slow, steady bleeding. You have disposable gloves in your pocket, but no bandages. What should you do? - Answer-- Apply direct pressure to the wound using your gloved hand A 16 year old female has been involved in a 5 mph car crash. What is your greatest concern? - Answer-- Patent airway What is NOT included in the management of a minor venous laceration? - Answer-- Tourniquet A 20 year old female was involved in a car crash. She complains of midline neck pain and is unable to move her extremities. What secondary injury should you suspect? - Answer-- Vertebral swelling A 23-year old male motorcyclist was struck by a car that ran a stop sign. He is pale and diaphoretic, and no external bleeding is noted. Vital signs are P 136 and R 28. Which of the following is most likely? - Answer-- Femur fracture An 80-year-old complains of leg pain. Their left foot is swollen, painful, discolored, and warm to the touch. What should you suspect? - Answer-- Deep vein thrombosis After initial treatments of an arterial bleed in the left forearm are unsuccessful. What should you do? - Answer-- Apply a tourniquet
A 40 year old male is unresponsive and pale, and you notice a deformity above his right wrist and bruising around his navel. His wife tells you that her husband was out drinking the previous evening and he stumbled while walking up the front steps. What should you suspect? - Answer-- Internal bleeding What the minimum systolic blood pressure that will perfuse all vital organs? - Answer-- 80 mmHg When protecting the cervical spine of a suspected trauma patient, what should you do?
- Answer-- Hold the neck in a neutral, in-line position A 16 year old female fell while rollerskating and is now confused and agitated. What should you suspect? - Answer-- Head and spinal injuries A 17 year old male has a knife impaled in his left chest. Vital signs are BP 118/76, R 10, P 97. What should you do? - Answer-- Stabilize the knife with dressings A 52 year old male was the unrestrained driver in a frontal impact car crash. Which of the following injuries would lead you to believe the patient traveled "up and over" the dashboard instead of "down and under"? - Answer-- Ruptured diaphragm A 32 year old male has an open wound on his arm after an unknown chemical powder was spilled on it. What should you do? - Answer-- Brush the powder off the wound A 22 year old female involved in a car accident has a 10 cm laceration across her abdomen. You see her large intestine protruding. What should you do? - Answer-- Apply a moist and occlusive dressing What will initial compensatory mechanisms do during hemorrhaging? - Answer-- Increase stroke volume and increase cardiac output An 18 year old male was struck in the head by a large rock. When caring for this patient, what should you continually reassess? - Answer-- Level of consciousness A 26 year old female complains of chest pain after a motor vehicle accident. Auscultation of lung sounds reveals distant heart tones. Vital signs are BP 160/70, P 56, R 22 and she has distended neck veins. What should you suspect? - Answer-- Pericardial tamponade A 72 year old female was in a motor vehicle collision. She has a right ulnar fracture with no distal circulation. What should you do? - Answer-- Attempt to realign the fracture What are the general principles for the management of a dislocation? - Answer-- Splinting in the position found
An alert and oriented 35 year old female is sitting on the ground after a car accident. Vital signs are BP 90/62, P 96, R 24 and shallow. She denies any numbness or tingling in her extremities. What should you do? - Answer-- Transport her immediately A 34 year old male involved in a motorcycle crash presents with tachycardia, hypotension and muffled heart tones. What should you suspect? - Answer-- Pericardial tamponade A 60 year old male with a head injury is moaning and making incomprehensible sounds. He withdrew when you started his IV but is otherwise not moving. His eyes are wide open. What is his Glasgow Coma Score? - Answer-- 10 An 18 year old male is hypotensive and bradycardic. His skin is warm and dry. He was hit during a football game and lost consciousness. What should you suspect? - Answer-
- Neurogenic A 45 year old male has fallen down a flight of stairs. He is unresponsive and has diminished breath sounds bilaterally with subcutaneous emphysema around the base of his neck. What should you suspect? - Answer-- Fractured treachea A 38 year old male has been struck with a brick. His words are incomprehensible, and he has no eye opening or motor response. He has unequal pupils and has blood draining from his left ear. Vital signs are BP 178/110, P 58, R 8. What should you suspect? - Answer-- A basal skull fracture An alert, ambulatory, 26 year old female admits to laying her motorcycle down at 25 mph to avoid a crash. She has extreme pain to her left side where you note severe abrasions. She denies any neck or back pain. What should you do? - Answer-- C-collar and immobilize her fully in the standing position A 32 year old female attempted to commit suicide by taking sleeping pills and cutting her wrists. She has dark red blood oozing from the wrist lacerations. Vital signs are BP 90/52, P 130 and weak, R 18. What type of bleeding should you suspect? - Answer-- Venous Contents of the Chest are protected by ____________ - Answer-- Ribs In which of the following situations would you remove an impaled object? - Answer-- Wire in the right cheek A 22 year female has lower leg deformity, moderate bleeding from the forehead, and signs and symptoms of shock following a motor vehicle collision. What should you do? - Answer-- Perform primary assessment, stabilize, and transport
A 27 year old male gunshot victim complains of difficulty breathing and chest pain. Upon assessment, you note he has a sucking chest wound. What should you do? - Answer-- Apply an occlusive dressing A 48 year old male has a nail protruding from his left eye. What should you do? - Answer-- Stabilize the nail with gauze covering both eyes What is the most serious complication of vaginal bleeding? - Answer-- Hypovolemic shock A 25 year old female has a distended abdomen and muffled lung sounds after a car accident. BP 130/80, P 96, R 24. What should you suspect? - Answer-- Ruptured bowel A 20 year old male struck his head while jumping into a swimming pool. He is unconscious and apneic. Vital signs are BP 88/70, P 80. There is a large amount of swelling and deformity in the cervical spine area. What should you do? - Answer-- Secure him to a long spineboard A 37 year old male has been pulled from the water after diving into a shallow lake. He is unconscious, flaccid, and has diaphragmatic breathing. Vital signs are BP 100/70, P 68, R 20. What should you do? - Answer-- Manually stabilize the cervical spine Open wounds that sometimes cause significant blood loss are called - Answer-- Lacerations Your patient's vehicle was struck by another motorist from behind. What should you do?
- Answer-- Stabilize the cervical spine A 20 year old male struck his head on a diving board and is unconscious and apneic. Vital signs are BP 88/70, P 80. He has a large amount of swelling and deformity in the cervical spine area. What should you suspect? - Answer-- Cervical spine injury An intoxicated 45 year old homeless man was hit in the chest. He complains of pain with inspiration. Bilateral lung sounds are clear. Vital signs are BP 130/80, P 76, R 12, SpO2 94%. What should you suspect? - Answer-- Rib fractures What organ is located in the upper right quadrant? - Answer-- Liver An 18 year old female was hit and has 4 teeth pushed into the upper gums of her jaw. She complains of severe pain and discomfort. Bleeding is minimal and vital signs are BP 120/90, R 16, P 88, SpO2 96%. What should you do? - Answer-- Monitor her bleeding and ensure a patent airway Which of the following describes bruising or discoloration behind the ears as a result of a fractured skull? - Answer-- Battle's
What are adolescent characteristics? - Answer-- Adolescents are concrete thinking but are developing their abstract thinking skills
- This age group believes that nothing bad can happen to them or, that they are invincible
- They may take risks that lead to trauma
- Use a relaxed approach when performing a history & secondary assessment
- Be honest-up to a point. What are some differences in infants when managing airway? - Answer-- Infants have proportionally larger tongues than adults
- Be careful when assessing airway in a child with altered mental status due to the ease for their airway to become occluded by their tongue What can easily cause the tongue to be displaced in an infant? - Answer-- Pressure on the soft tissue under the chin Newborns & infants are what type of breathers? - Answer-- Nose breathers What are some differences in pediatric patient's heads than in adults? - Answer-- They are proportionally larger than adults.
- Infants younger than 6-7 mos typically cannot fully support their own heads
- Infants have a "soft spot" on the head from incomplete close of the skeletal plates What are some differences in pediatric patient's chest & lungs than in adults? - Answer-- The child's ribs are much more pliable than the adult's
- Child's ribs are more horizontal than they are rounded
- Lung tissue is much more fragile
- The chest will move minimally with respiration
- The chest muscles are underdeveloped and used more as accessory muscles
- The combination of the compliant chest wall, smaller airways, and diaphragm dependence means that infants' lungs are prone to collapse What are some differences in pediatric patient's Respiratory System? - Answer-- The breathing is inadequate once the respiratory rate reaches 60 breaths per min. or greater in children
- Infants & children <5 yrs will breathe at a rate 2-3 times faster than the adult patient What are some differences in pediatric patient's Cardiovascular System? - Answer--The heart rate increases in response to fear, fever, anxiety, hypoxia, activity, and hypovolemia
- In infants & children, bradycardia is a late response to hypoxia. In newborns, bradycardia is the initial response to hypoxia
- Infants & Children have a smaller circulating blood volume than adults
- Hypotension will not usually develop in infants & children until greater than 30 % of the blood volume has been lost. The onset of hypotension is sudden once the compensation falls.
- Infants & young children have a limited ability to increase the strength of cardiac contraction What are some differences in pediatric patient's Abdomen? - Answer--The child's abdominal musculature is less well developed than the adult's
- Until the child reaches puberty, the liver and spleen are more exposed & less protected. What are some differences in pediatric patient's Extremities? - Answer--The bones of the extremities in a child fracture more often by bending & splintering (referred to as a green-stick fracture).
- The infant & young child's motor development occurs from the head to the toes. What are some differences in pediatric patient's Metabolic Rate? - Answer--Infants & children have a much faster metabolic rate, even at rest.
- The cells in their bodies use oxygen & glucose from the bloodstream 2-3 times faster than in adults, and periods of apnea (absence of breathing), hypoventilation (depressed breathing), or poor oxygenation can be more dangerous.
- Pediatric patients are at a significant What are some differences in pediatric patient's Skin & Body Surface Area? - Answer--A child's skin surface is large compared to his body mass making them more susceptible to hypothermia
- The skin is thinner & much more delicate than in an adult What are the components & flow of the primary assessment for the pediatric patient? - Answer--Forming a general impression using the Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT)
- Assessing the level of consciousness (AVPU)
- Airway assessment
- Breathing Assessment
- Circulatory assessment
- Priority determination When should your primary assessment on a pediatric patient begin? - Answer-at the doorway What are the 3 components to the Pediatric Assessment Triangle? - Answer-1. Appearance
- Work of breathing
- Circulation to skin What are the characteristics to assess under Appearance? - Answer--TONE: muscle tone, movement, resistance, limpness, flaccidity
- INTERACTIVITY & IRRITABILITY: alertness, reactivity to object, sound, or person; grasp & play with a toy
- CONSOLABILITY: child's ability to be consoled by parent/caregiver
What will crackles indicate? - Answer-certain respiratory diseases have caused fluid to accumulate in and around the alveoli What will wheezing indicate? - Answer-caused by medical emergencies that cause narrowing of the lower airway and can also be caused by aspiration of blood, vomitus, or foreign objects. What will Stridor indicate? - Answer-- Results from severe obstruction in the upper airway problems, if absent, cause is more likely to be an emergency involving the lower portions of the airway. What are some circulation assessment parameters? - Answer-- Pulse rate & strength, strength of peripheral versus central pulses, warmth & color of hands & feet, urinary output, mental status What are some signs of early respiratory distress? - Answer--Increase in respiratory rate above normal for age
- Nasal flaring
- Intercostal retractions on inspiration
- Supraclavicular & subcostal retractions on inspiration
- Neck muscle use
- Audible breathing noises such as stridor,wheezing, grunting
- Seesaw respirations
- Alert or easily arousable child demonstrating behavior that reflects some energy reserve What are some additional signs that could indicate decompensated respiratory failure? - Answer--Resp rate over 60 pm
- Cyanosis
- Decreased muscle tone
- Severe use of accessory muscles to aid in resp
- Poor peripheral perfusion
- Altered mental status
- Grunting
- Head bobbing What are the steps to perform to remove an obstruction in an infant? - Answer-1. Position patient prone (belly down, back up) on your forearm in a head-down position, supporting infant's head with your hand & supporting your arm on your thigh
- Deliver 5 sharp back slaps (blows) between the should blades.
- Transfer the patient to a supine, head-down position on your other forearm & deliver 5 chest thrusts using 2 fingertips positioned one finger width beneath nipple line
- Continue to repeat steps en route until obstruction is dislodged, the infant becomes unresponsive, or you arrive at the medical facility
What is croup? - Answer-- Common infection of upper airway, usually caused by a virus but sometimes by bacteria
- Slow onset, accompanied by low-grade fever, most common in children 6 mos-4 yrs
- Infection causes swelling beneath the glottis & progressively narrows the airway What is asthma? - Answer-- Long-term inflammatory process that targets the lower airways What is bronchiolitis? - Answer-- Caused when mucosal layer within the bronchioles in the lungs becomes inflamed by a viral infection
- During exhalation, child wheezes loudly What is pneumonia? - Answer-- Is bacterial, viral, mycoplasmal & fungal infection of the lung What steps should be taken in the case of a cold-water drowning? - Answer-1. Remove the patient from the water
- Assume that a spinal injury has occurred & provide full immobilization while establishing an airway
- Clear airway, and provide PPV via a BVM with supplemental oxygen connected to ventilation device if breathing is inadequate or absent.
- Check circulation. Provide CPR as needed. Attach the AED.
- Maintain the treatment en route, and monitor the airway closely for regurgitation & aspiration. Have suction readily available. What is meningitis? - Answer-- The lining of the brain & spinal cord are infected by either bacteria or viruses
- These infections can be rapidly fatal, so they must be assessed promptly & treated in a timely & appropriate manner
- Fever in a child younger than 3 mos should be considered meningitis until proven otherwise What does ALTE stand for? - Answer-Apparent Life-Threatening Event. Defined as "an episode that is frightening to the observer and that is characterized by some combination of apnea (central or occasionally obstructive), color change (usually cyanotic or pale but occasionally erythematous or plethoric), marked change in muscle tone (usually marked limpness), choking, or gagging. An ALTE may include a combination of symptoms (often transient) affecting infants, including: - Answer-Apnea, skin color change, Changes in muscle tone, unexplained choking or gagging SUDDEN INFANT DEATH SYNDROME (SIDS): - Answer-commonly known as "crib death", defined as the sudden & unexpected death of an infant (under 1 yr of age) in which an autopsy fails to identify the cause of death.
Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, EXCEPT: - Answer-. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation. When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: - Answer-. brief and easily understood. f an action or procedure that was performed on a patient is not recorded on the written report: - Answer-it was not performed in the eyes of the law. Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: - Answer-not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons When you begin an oral report, you should state the patient's age, sex, and: - Answer- chief complaint. The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the: - Answer-medical director. Two-way communication that requires the EMT to "push to talk" and "release to listen" describes what mode of communication? - Answer-. simplex According to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, an employer must: - Answer-offer a workplace environment that reduces the risk for exposure. which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure? An EMT gives the correct drug to a patient, although his protocols clearly state that he is not authorized to do so. B. Due to an improperly applied cervical collar, a patient's spinal injury is aggravated and he is permanently disabled. C. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug. D. A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first. - Answer-An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug. Correct Which of the following statements regarding the Good Samaritan law is correct? It provides the EMT immunity from a lawsuit. B. The law does not protect EMTs who are off duty. C. It will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence. D. It guarantees that the EMT will not be held liable if he or she is sued. - Answer-it will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence. In which of the following situations does the EMT NOT have a legal duty to act?
Choose one answer. A. a response to an injured patient while off duty B. a response to a motor vehicle crash while off duty C. Local policy requires you to assist in any emergency. D. a response to the residence of a patient who fell - Answer-a response to a motor vehicle crash while off duty The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT: - Answer-gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the health care setting can usually be traced to: - Answer-careless handling of sharps. When faced with a situation in which a patient is in cardiac arrest, and a valid living will or DNR order cannot be located, you should: - Answer-begin resuscitation at once. After delivering your patient to the hospital, you sit down to complete the PCR. When documenting the patient's last blood pressure reading, you inadvertently write 120/ instead of 130/70. To correct this mistake, you should: - Answer-draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct data next to it. What section of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel? - Answer-protecting patient privacy Typical components of an oral patient report include all of the following, EXCEPT: important medical history not previously given. B. the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene. C. the chief complaint or mechanism of injury. D. the patient's response to treatment you provided. - Answer-the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene. Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by: A. maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible. B. using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands. C. positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient. D. withholding unpleasant information until arrival at the hospital. - Answer-maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible. General guidelines for effective radio communications include all of the following, EXCEPT: Choose one answer. A. acknowledging a transmission as soon as possible. B. holding the microphone about 2" to 3" from your mouth. C. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality. D. speaking in a clear, calm, monotone voice. - Answer-C. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality.
C. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor D. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis - Answer- 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin Correct Which of the following will MOST reliably allow you to determine the nature of a patient's illness? Choose one answer. A. asking questions related to the chief complaint B. trending of the patient's vital signs over time C. focusing solely on how the call is dispatched D. refraining from asking open-ended questions - Answer-A. asking questions related to the chief complaint The diaphragm functions as an involuntary muscle when a person: - Answer-sleeps the leaf-shaped structure located superior to the larynx is called the: - Answer-epiglottis. The primary prehospital treatment for most medical emergencies: - Answer-addresses the patient's symptoms more than the actual disease process. An index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: - Answer-your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness. Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT the: Choose one answer. A. trachea. B. alveoli. C. epiglottis. D. bronchioles. - Answer-C. epiglottis. The jaw-thrust maneuver is used to open the airway of patients with suspected: - Answer-cervical spine injuries Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells: - Answer-incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood. 19 - year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should: - Answer-remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. Inhalation occurs when the - Answer-diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure. Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as: - Answer-shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.
Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: Choose one answer. A. a respiratory infection. B. an overdose of aspirin. C. high blood glucose levels. D. a narcotic overdose. - Answer-a narcotic overdose You are dispatched to a residence where a middle-aged man was found unconscious in his front yard. There are no witnesses who can tell you what happened. You find him in a prone position; his eyes are closed and he is not moving. Your FIRST action should be to: - Answer-log roll him as a unit to a supine position. In what area of the lungs does respiration occur? - Answer-alveoli Harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sounds are characteristic of: - Answer-stridor Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway? A. larynx B. pharynx C. bronchus D. oropharynx - Answer-C. bronchus In infants and children, a capillary refill time (CRT) that is greater than ______ second(s) is a sign of poor peripheral perfusion. - Answer- 2 Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that: - Answer-you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient. Distributive shock occurs when: - Answer-widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds. The two processes that occur during respiration are - Answer-inspiration and expiration. Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is MOST correct? Choose one answer. A. Chronic carbon dioxide elimination often results in activation of the hypoxic drive. B. 100% supplemental oxygen will always cause apnea in patients with a hypoxic drive. C. The hypoxic drive serves as the primary stimulus for breathing in healthy individuals. D. The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels. - Answer-The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels.
A. liver laceration B. repeated diarrhea C. severe vomiting D. excessive sweating - Answer-liver laceration Temporary, widespread vasodilation and syncope caused by a sudden nervous system reaction MOST accurately describes: - Answer-psychogenic shock. Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct? Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct? Choose one answer. A. The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream. B. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B and is easily transmitted in the health care setting. C. Most patients who are infected with HIV experience chronic symptoms that vary in duration and severity. D. The risk of HIV infection is high, even if an infected person's blood comes in contact with your intact skin. - Answer-The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream. Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by: - Answer-adequate amounts of surfactant. Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia? Choose one answer. A. tachycardia Incorrect B. anxiety Incorrect C. restlessness D. cyanosis - Answer-cyanosis An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as: Choose one answer. A. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs. B. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms. C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body. D. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional. - Answer-C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body. Correct Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: - Answer-cardiogenic shock
Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by - Answer- repeating the primary assessment an organ or tissue may be better to resis damage from hypperfusion if the - Answer- body temperature is consistently less than 98.6F (37.0) the electrical impulse by the heart originates in the - Answer-sinoatrial node(sa) what is true about blood clotting? - Answer-a person taking aspirin will expierence slower blood clotting classic symptoms and signs of hypoglycemia include - Answer-cool, clammy, weak, tachycardia, rapid respirations glucose is a trade name for - Answer-oral glucose What organs lie in the retroperitoneal space? - Answer-gallbladder common causes of psychotic behavior include the following, except - Answer- Alzheimers dieses significant vital signs changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than___of his or her blood - Answer-20% What is a fact of hemophilia's? - Answer-may bleed spontaneously as red blood cells begin to clumb together to form a clot,____reinforces the clumped red blood cells - Answer-fibrinogen when assessing arm movement of a suspected stroke, you should - Answer-expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patients side hypoperfusion is another name for - Answer-shock activated charcoal administration is contraindicated in patients who have ingested - Answer-acids or alkalies anaphylaxis is mod accurately defines as an - Answer-extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems what is not an assessment parameter included in the cincinati prehospital stroke scale - Answer-memory what is not a function of the sympathetic nervous system? - Answer-constriction of blood vessels in the digestive system,
