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Trauma Care: Written Test Questions and Answers, Exams of Traumatology

A comprehensive set of questions and answers related to trauma care, covering topics such as the nervous system, physiological stimulation, stress inoculation, tccc (tactical combat casualty care), burn management, pain management, and hemorrhage control. It is a valuable resource for students and professionals in the field of emergency medicine and trauma care.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 10/29/2024

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68w ALC Phase 3 Trauma Written test
Questions with Correct Answers.
The nervous system two main structural divisions - Correct answer 1.)
Central Nervous System(CNS)
2.) Peripheral Nervous System(PNS)
Central Nervous System controls what? - Correct answer the brain and
spinal cord
What are the two sub-systems for Peripheral Nervous System? - Correct
answer 1.) Somatic Nervous System
2.) Autonomic Nervous System
Somatic nervous system controls what? - Correct answer sensory nerves
and the efferent, motor nerves
(intentional movement and sensation)
Autonomic nervous system controls what? - Correct answer automatic
(involuntary) body functions (unconscious body functions)
Autonomic nervous system two sub-systems? - Correct answer 1.)
Sympathetic Nervous System
2.) Parasympathetic Nervous System
Sympathetic Nervous System is what? - Correct answer Fight or Flight
This system is mediated by catecholamine's including epinephrine,
norepinephrine, and dopamine
Sympathetic Nervous System effects include what? - Correct answer 1.)
Pupil dilation
2.) Tremors
3.) Tachycardia
4.) Vasoconstriction
5.) Bronchodilation
6.) Blood shunting from the mid-brain
7.) Enhanced neural stimulation of large muscles groups
Parasympathetic Nervous System is what? - Correct answer Feed and
Breed/ Rest and Digest
1.) Opposite effect to the SNS
Tachycardia due to what does not correlate with SNS stimulation? -
Correct answer medication, illness or exercise
The five conditions of physiological stimulation? - Correct answer White,
Yellow, Red, Gray and Black
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68w ALC Phase 3 Trauma Written test

Questions with Correct Answers.

The nervous system two main structural divisions - Correct answer 1.) Central Nervous System(CNS) 2.) Peripheral Nervous System(PNS) Central Nervous System controls what? - Correct answer the brain and spinal cord What are the two sub-systems for Peripheral Nervous System? - Correct answer 1.) Somatic Nervous System 2.) Autonomic Nervous System Somatic nervous system controls what? - Correct answer sensory nerves and the efferent, motor nerves (intentional movement and sensation) Autonomic nervous system controls what? - Correct answer automatic (involuntary) body functions (unconscious body functions) Autonomic nervous system two sub-systems? - Correct answer 1.) Sympathetic Nervous System 2.) Parasympathetic Nervous System Sympathetic Nervous System is what? - Correct answer Fight or Flight This system is mediated by catecholamine's including epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine Sympathetic Nervous System effects include what? - Correct answer 1.) Pupil dilation 2.) Tremors 3.) Tachycardia 4.) Vasoconstriction 5.) Bronchodilation 6.) Blood shunting from the mid-brain 7.) Enhanced neural stimulation of large muscles groups Parasympathetic Nervous System is what? - Correct answer Feed and Breed/ Rest and Digest 1.) Opposite effect to the SNS Tachycardia due to what does not correlate with SNS stimulation? - Correct answer medication, illness or exercise The five conditions of physiological stimulation? - Correct answer White, Yellow, Red, Gray and Black

Effects of condition WHITE? - Correct answer 1.) Normal pulse (60- bpm) 2.) Normal resp rate 3.) Fine motor skills intact 4.) Normal cognition Effects of condition YELLOW? - Correct answer 1.) Pulse rate 80- bpm 2.) Heightened awareness and normal resp 3.) Elevated BP and tremors 4.) Fine motor skills deteriorate at 115 bpm Effects of condition RED? - Correct answer 1.) Pulse rate 115-145 bpm 2.) Complex motor skills, cognition and visual reaction peak Effects of condition BLACK? - Correct answer 1. Pulse rate 145-175 bpm

  1. Cognition decrease
  2. Loss of depth perception
  3. Auditory exclusion What is stress inoculation? - Correct answer The process building a person's resistance to stress What condition is best for realistic training? - Correct answer Condition Red What are some training variables? - Correct answer 1. Environment (outdoors vs classrooms)
  4. Uniform
  5. Distracters (noise, smoke, odors)
  6. Task complexity
  7. Stressors from instructors(imtimdiation, scrutinization) TCCC goals? - Correct answer 1. Complete the mission
  8. Prevent additional casualties
  9. Save preventable deaths What is the 15% of preventable cause of death we focus on in tactical medicine? - Correct answer 1. Extremity hemorrhage 9%
  10. tension pneumothorax 5%
  11. Airway obstruction 1% 3 phases of TCCC? - Correct answer 1. Care under fire
  12. Tactical field care
  13. Tactical evac care Types of Evacuations? - Correct answer 1. Medevac
  14. Casevac
  15. Stratevac (movement of large numbers of casualties, primary by the USAF)
  1. Adult 20 mg slow IV/IO push over 1 min repeat every 20 min until pain is controlled or nystagmus is present (rhythmic eye movement back and forth)
  2. Hypersensitivity, Psychiatric disturbance, Hypertension, ICP or pregnancy Naloxone (Narcan) class and dose - Correct answer 1. Narcotic antidote
  3. IV/IO (0.4 mg to 2.0 mg)
  4. used to reverse respiratory depression Ondansetron (Zofran) class and dose - Correct answer 1. antiemetic
  5. 4mg Oral disinigrating tabs ODT/IV/IO/IM q8 hrs may repeat once at 15 min if symptoms persist dont exceed 8mg in any 8 hr period interval If casualties is in SHOCK or UNRESPONSIVE the ABX of choice is? - Correct answer 1. Cefotetan 2g IV/IM
  6. Ertapenem 1g IV/IM ABX if casualty conscious and not in shock is? - Correct answer 1. Moxifloxacin 400mg PO (part of combat pill pack for eye penetrating trauma) Dosage for Ancef (cefazolin) ABX - Correct answer 1-2g IV/IM every 8 hrs Dosage for Rocephin (ceftriaxone) ABX - Correct answer 1-2g IV/IM every 12-24 hrs Injury to a major blood vessel can result in what? - Correct answer 1. Exsanguination (extreme blood loss)
  7. hypvolemic shock Blood functions, components and formed elements - Correct answer 1. Transports oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, heat, hormones and waste products
  8. regulates temp, pH
  9. Componets plasma, WBC's (fight infection)and RBC's (Oxygenate) and Platelets What Dissolved proteins are in plasma and essential in the clotting process? - Correct answer 1. Fibrinogen
  10. Prothrombin What are some clotting inhibitors? - Correct answer 1. Hypothermia
  11. Acidosis
  12. Coagulopathy (also called a bleeding disorder is a condition in which the blood's ability to coagulate (form clots) is impaired)
  13. Hemodilution Signs and symptoms of non-compressible hemorrhage include? - Correct answer 1. Ecchymosis
  14. Hemptysis (coughing up blood)
  1. Rectal bleeding
  2. Hermatemesis (Bloody vomiting) How much can a typical adult bleed up to in each side of the chest? - Correct answer 1500 ml How many liters of blood and IV solution can a typical adult hemorrhage into the ABD even though he/she only has about 6 liters of blood circulating? - Correct answer 10 liters of blood and IV fluid How many liters can a typical adult bleed during one thigh closed femoral artery hemorrhage? - Correct answer 1 liter Contraindication for deliberate TQ conversion - Correct answer The casualty will arrive at a surgical facility within 2 hrs 4 P's of wound packing - Correct answer 1. Peel
  3. Push
  4. Pile
  5. Pressure dressing What is the only current-approved hemostatic on the battlefield? - Correct answer QuickClot combat gauze D sized oxygen cylinder contains approximately how many liters of usable oxygen? - Correct answer 288 liters Formula for calculating the oxygen flow in a D sized cylinder is? - Correct answer PSI-200 = usable PSI usable PSI x 0.16 = usable liters usable liters / liters per min (LPM) = min until O2 is expended The NPA prevents the relaxed tongue from occluding the airway in what type of patients? - Correct answer 1. Unconscious
  6. Obtunded (semiconscious) NPA contraindications - Correct answer 1. head injury
  7. fracture hard palate
  8. maxillofacial trauma
  9. CSF / brain matter How do you insert a NPA into the left nare? - Correct answer 1. Turn NPA upside down so that the bevel is towards the septum
  10. Turn the NPA 180 degrees until it lies behind the tongue Should you use an OPA on the battlefield? - Correct answer No, if a casualty can tolerate an OPA they should receive a more advanced airway How do you size a NPA? - Correct answer 1. Use patients pinky to determine the diameter
  11. Measure from the top of the nose to the casualty ear lobe
  1. Lungs
  2. Mediastinum (cavity between lungs contains heart and great vessels) Major vessels of thorax (upper rib cage) - Correct answer 1. Pulmonary artery and vein
  3. Aorta
  4. Inferior vena cava and superior vena cava Upper ABD organs (also protected by the lower rib cage) - Correct answer
  5. Spleen
  6. Kidneys
  7. Liver
  8. Stomach
  9. Pancreas Diaphragm positioning during phases of respiration - Correct answer 1. inspiration / lower
  10. expiration / higher A penetrating thoracic wound at what intercostal space and below should be treated as both as an ABD injury and/or a thoracic injury? - Correct answer 4th intercostal space (level of the nipples) List major signs/symptoms indicating chest injury - Correct answer 1. Shock
  11. Cyanosis
  12. Hemoptysis (coughing up blood)
  13. Chest wall contusion
  14. Flail chest
  15. Open wounds
  16. Distended neck veins
  17. Tracheal deviation
  18. Subcutaneous emphysema
  19. Eviscerated bowel What is diaphoresis and pallor? - Correct answer 1. secretion of sweat
  20. absence of color (pale) Describe pneumothorax - Correct answer Can be cause by blunt of penetrating injury. Caused by accumulation of of air within pleural space. Pt may have dyspnea, decreased breath sounds of side with injury. Describe open pneumothorax - Correct answer Cause by penetrating injury. Will likely see sucking chest wound. Air does not enter lung. O2 is reduced. Pneumothorax develops as air is sucked in and builds between visceral and parietal pleura. Tension pneumothorax is what? - Correct answer 1. Second leading cause of preventable death
  1. Air cannot leave plural space and pressure develops (caused by occlusive dressing) Casualties with torso trauma or polytrauma who have no pulse or respiration during tactical field care or tact evac should have what done? - Correct answer 1. Bilateral NCD to ensure they do not have a tension pneumo NCD needle dimensions - Correct answer 1. 10-14 guage needle
  2. 3.25 inch needle What is a massive hemothorax? - Correct answer At least 1500 ml blood loss into thoracic cavity or 200 ml drainage from chest tube Raidial pulse is equal to a BP of what? - Correct answer 80 mmHg systolic What is a flail chest? - Correct answer Occurs when TWO or more adjacent ribs are fractured in at least TWO places What is the most common lethal chest injury? - Correct answer Pulmonary contusion What is a pulmonary contusion? - Correct answer The bruising of the lung can produce marker hypoxemia secondary to bleeding into the alveoli Myocardial contusion - Correct answer Blunt injury to chest and may cause cardiac rupture, pericardial tamponade, but contusion is the most common. Cardiac tamponade - Correct answer Can be caused by penetrating or blunt trauma. Pericardial sac fills with blood and compresses heart. A cardiac tamponade is not caused by a penetrating injury T/F - Correct answer False What is a Diaphragmatic tears? - Correct answer Can result from severe blow to abd. Sudden increase in intra-abd pressure that will tear diaphram and allow herniation of abd organs into thoracic cavity. Occurs more commonly of L side. What is Traumatic asphyxia? - Correct answer Results from severe compression injury to chest. Lips and tongue may be swollen and conjunctinal hemorrhage may be evident. Identify the presenting signs in a tracheal or bronchial tree injury - Correct answer 1. Dyspnea (labor breathing)
  3. Hemoptysis (coughing up blood)
  4. Subcutaneous emphysema of the chest, neck and face
  5. Associated pneumo or hemothorax What causes Diaphragmatic tears? - Correct answer Blunt and penetrating trauma T/F in a pulmonary contusion bruising of the lung does not produce marked hypoxemia? - Correct answer False
  1. Plasma lyte-A What does CRoC stand for? - Correct answer Combat Ready Clamp CRoC two regions and five sites - Correct answer 1. Inguinal and Axilla
  2. Femoral, Illica, subclavian, axillary and brachial arteries Benefits of the CRoC - Correct answer 1. hand free once applied- no manuel pressure needed
  3. Easy to use assembled and applied in less than a minute
  4. Secure - does not slip during pt evac
  5. durable, lightweight, minimal cube What does JETT stand for? - Correct answer Junctional Emergency Treatment Tool What does SJT stand for? - Correct answer SAM Junctional TQ What is a MASCAL? - Correct answer The number of patients exceed the medical capabilities Overall person in charge of the MASCAL situation? - Correct answer Medical treatment squad leader Responsible for triage at the point of injury and will designate the triage categories - Correct answer Triage NCO Responsible for reassessing all interventions - Correct answer Treatment NCO Responsible for the MEDEVAC request has/have been established with LZ
  • Correct answer EVAC NCO Examples of Delayed injuries - Correct answer Open chest wound ABD wounds without shock Eye injuries Fractures Second degree burns and third covering 20-39% Maxillofacial trauma without airway compromise Examples of immediate injuries - Correct answer Airway obstruction Open Pneumothoroax (sucking chest wound) with respiratory distress Tension Pneumo Examples of minimal injuries - Correct answer 1. Minor lacerations and abrasions
  1. Contusions
  2. Sprains & strains
  3. Minor combat stress problems
  4. Burns with TBSA 15%
  1. Upper extremity fractures without neurovascular comprise
  2. BH problems
  3. Blast injuries (ruptured TMs) Examples of expectant injuries - Correct answer 1. Burns with 60% TBSA mostly 3rd degree burn
  4. Cervical spinal cord injuries
  5. Profound shock with multiple injuries What evac category does psychiatric cases fall under? - Correct answer Priority III / Routine What are the evac times for Urgent, Priority and Routine? - Correct answer Urgent 1 hour Priority 4 hours Routine 24 hours Which triage category should BH disorders or other obvious psychiatric disturbances be placed in? - Correct answer Minimal What is primary closure? - Correct answer Wound is closed by artificial means What is secondary closure? - Correct answer Wound is left open and closes gradually through the natural healing process What is tertiary / Delayed primary closure? - Correct answer wound is left open initially, then closed by artificial Any wound that has been exposed for greater than how many hours is at significant risk for infection? - Correct answer 8 hours Lidocaine with epi should not be used on the following appendages - Correct answer Ears nose finger toes genitalia