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TEST BANK FOR UNDERSTANDING PATHOPHYSIOLOGY 7TH EDITION BY HUETHER Chapter 01: Cellular Biology Huether: Understanding Pathophysiology, 7th Edition Latest Updated 2023 Examination Study Guide.
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MULTIPLE CHOICE
ANS: B The cell described is a eukaryotic cell, so it has histones and a supercoiled DNA within its nucleus; thus, the nucleus should be observed. A single circular chromosome called a prokaryote contains free-floating nuclear material but has no organelles.
secretion allows for the synthesizing of new substances.
ANS: C The region of the cell that contains genetic material, including a large amount of ribonucleic acid, most of the DNA, and DNA-binding proteins, is the nucleolus, which is located within the cell’s nucleus. Mitochondria is associated with cellular respiration while ribosomes are involved with protein manufacturing. Cytoplasm is a fluid filling that is a component of the cell.
ANS: B Proteins directly attached to the membrane bilayer can be removed by the action of integral membrane proteins that dissolve the bilayer. Peripheral membrane proteins reside at the surface while cell adhesion molecules are on the outside of the membrane. Glycoprotein marks cells and does not float.
ANS: D Ligands are the only specific molecules that can bind with receptors on the cell membrane.
ANS: A Only a reduced amount of fibronectin is found in some types of cancerous cells, allowing them to travel or metastasize.
b. (^) Gap junction c. (^) Desmosome d. (^) Tight junction
ANS: A Cell junctions hold cells together and permit molecules to pass from cell to cell. Gap junctions allow for cellular communication between cells. Neither desmosomes nor tight junctions are associated with cellular communication.
b. (^) substrate. c. (^) receptor. d. (^) ribosome.
ANS: B Each enzyme has a high affinity for a substrate, a specific substance converted to a product of the reaction. Cellular metabolism is not dependent on an attraction between an enzyme and any of the remaining options.
ANS: C When ATP is deficient, impaired muscle contraction results. None of the other options are involved in muscle contraction.
While some ATP is produced during the oxidation and glycolysis phases, most of the ATP is generated during the citric acid cycle. Digestion does not produce any ATP.
ANS: A Only digestion, glycolysis, oxidation, and the citric acid cycle are the phases of cellular catabolism.
ANS: C
When no oxygen is available, anaerobic glycolysis occurs. The electron-transport chain is part of the citric acid cycle. Aerobic glycolysis involves the presence of oxygen. Oxidative phosphorylation is the mechanism by which the energy produced from carbohydrates, fats, and proteins is transferred to ATP. It is not part of muscle performance.
ANS: B Diffusion is the movement of a solute molecule from an area of greater solute concentration to an area of lesser solute concentration through a permeable membrane. Osmosis is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from a region of higher water concentration to one of lower concentration. Hydrostatic pressure is the force of fluid against a cell membrane. In active transport, molecules move up a concentration gradient.
up of protein, and they do not play a role in ATP production.
ANS: B Oncotic pressure is determined by the effect of colloids or plasma proteins. The concentration of sodium plays a role in tonicity. Hydrostatic pressure is the force within a vessel. Membrane transporter proteins are involved in active transport within a concentration gradient.
ANS: A
ANS: C Phagocytosis (cell eating) involves the ingestion of large particles, such as bacteria, through the formation of large vesicles. Endocytosis involves the formation of vesicles to facilitate movement into the cell. Pinocytosis is a type of endocytosis in which fluids and solute molecules are ingested through the formation of small vesicles. Exocytosis occurs when coated pits invaginate and internalize ligand-receptor complexes in coated vesicles.
d. (^) Potassium gates close, allowing sodium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative. ANS: B When the threshold is reached, the cell will continue to depolarize with no further stimulation. The sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, causing the membrane potential to reduce to zero and then become positive (depolarization). Sodium is involved in creating the action potential, not potassium. The sodium gate and channel must be open, not closed. The action potential is not affected by a change in the potassium gate.
ANS: A With voltage change, potassium rushes into, not out of, the cell. Sodium movement is not related to this process.
a. (^) platelets. b. (^) epidermal cells. c. (^) connective tissue cells. d. fibroblast cells. ANS: C Different types of cells require different growth factors; for example, PDGF stimulates the production of connective tissue cells, but not platelets, epidermal cells, or fibroblast cells.
ANS: A Anaphase begins when the centromeres split and the sister chromatids are pulled apart. During telophase, a new nuclear membrane is formed around each group of 46 chromosomes, the spindle fibers disappear, and the chromosomes begin to uncoil. During prophase, the first appearance of chromosomes occurs. Metaphase occurs when two centrioles located at opposite poles of the cell pull the chromosomes to opposite sides of the cell.
ANS: A Cytokines play a major role in the regulation of tissue growth and development but do not restrain it. Cytokines help overcome intracellular braking mechanisms that restrain cell growth and promote cell growth, but they do not provide nutrients.
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. A nurse recalls that the basic types of tissues are: (Select all that apply.) a. (^) nerve. b. (^) epithelial. c. (^) mucosal.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
ANS: B The three basic components of DNA are deoxyribose; a phosphate molecule; and four types of nitrogenous, not phosphate, bases. DNA does not contain condone.
ANS: D The frameshift mutation involves the insertion or deletion of one or more base pairs of the DNA molecule. This greatly alters the amino acid sequence, which affects protein synthesis. The base pair substitution is a type of mutation in which one base pair replaces another. Silent mutations do not change amino acids or protein synthesis. Intron mutations are part of RNA
ANS: C The four base components of DNA are cytosine, thymine, adenine, and guanine, and are commonly represented by their first letters (A, C, T, and G) and not components identified as P or U. X, XX, XY, and YY are components of human chromosomes.
ANS: B
The consistent pairing of adenine with thymine and of guanine with cytosine is known as complementary base pairing; thus, A complements to T and C to G and vice versa throughout the strand. A complements to T; thus, the first letter must be a T. U does not represent a complement in the sequence.
ANS: D In translation, RNA directs the synthesis of a polypeptide, interacting with transfer RNA (tRNA), a cloverleaf-shaped strand of about 80 nucleotides. Termination does not involve synthesis of protein. Transcription is the process by which DNA specifies a sequence of messenger RNA (mRNA). Translocation is the interchange of genetic material between nonhomologous chromosomes.
failure during meiosis. Polyploidy occurs when a euploid cell has more than the diploid number of chromosomes. Conjoined twins are not due to chromosome failure during meiosis.
ANS: C A polyploid cell is one in which a euploid cell has more than 23 pairs of chromosomes. A diploid cell is when the somatic cell nucleus has 46 chromosomes in 23 pairs. A euploid cell is a cell with multiples of the normal number of chromosomes. A haploid cell has only one member of each chromosome pair, for a total of 23 chromosomes.
The primary risk for Down syndrome is pregnancy in women over 35. Down syndrome is a trisomy and not due to fetal exposure or paternal age. Down syndrome is a chromosomal abnormality and is not related to family history.
ANS: C A condition with the presence of a single X chromosome and no homologous X or Y chromosome, so the individual has a total of 45 chromosomes, is known as Turner syndrome. Down syndrome is a change in one arm of a chromosome. Cri du chat syndrome is due to a chromosome deletion. Fragile X syndrome is due to a break or a gap in a chromosome.
single X chromosome and no homologous X or Y chromosome, so the individual has a total of 45 chromosomes, is known as Turner syndrome. Down syndrome is a trisomy. Fragile X syndrome is due to a break or a gap in a chromosome, not an extra chromosome.
c. (^) Dominance d. (^) Recessiveness
ANS: B Expressivity is the extent of variation in phenotype associated with a particular genotype. For neurofibromatosis, a variety of manifestations occur among individuals. The penetrance of a trait is the percentage of individuals with a specific genotype who also exhibit the expected phenotype. Dominance refers to observable traits and risk of transmission. Recessiveness refers to silent strains with reduced risk of occurrence.
ANS: D Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. It is not a result of X links or dominant pathology.
Prader-Willi, an example of gene imprinting, is not associated with any autosomal sex-linked abnormality.
ANS: D Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a relatively common X-linked recessive, not dominant, disorder. While it is sex linked, it is not X-limited or X-influenced.
ANS: C
a. (^) a polygenic trait. b. (^) a multifactorial trait. c. (^) crossing over. d. recombination. ANS: B The gradual increase in height is an example of multifactorial traits influenced by genes and also by environment. Polygenic traits result from several genes acting together. Crossing over is an abnormal chromosome structure. Recombination results from new arrangements of alleles.
ANS: D DNA polymerase, not RNA polymerase, is the primary enzyme involved in replication. It adds bases to the new DNA strand and performs “proofreading” functions. Neither messenger RNA nor transfer RNA is as important to DNA replication.
ANS: B When the mRNA is first transcribed from the DNA template, it reflects exactly the base sequence of the DNA. In eukaryotes, many RNA sequences are removed by nuclear enzymes, and the remaining sequences are spliced together to form the functional mRNA that migrates to the cytoplasm. The excised sequences are called introns (intervening sequences), and the sequences that are left to code for proteins are called exons. In translation, RNA directs the synthesis of a polypeptide, a cloverleaf-shaped strand of about 80 nucleotides. The tRNA molecule has a site where an amino acid attaches. The three-nucleotide sequence at the opposite side of the cloverleaf is called the anticodon.
A key feature of Huntington disease is its delayed age of onset such that symptoms are not seen until 40 years of age or later. The penetrance of a trait is the percentage of individuals with a specific genotype who also exhibit the expected phenotype. Recurrence risk is the percentage of family members who will inherit the disease. Expressivity is the extent of variation in phenotype associated with a particular genotype.
ANS: C Silent mutations do not change the amino acid sequence and therefore have no consequences. Frameshift mutations involve the insertion or deletion of one or more base pairs of the DNA molecule. They alter the amino acid sequence. Spontaneous mutations occur in the absence of exposure to a mutagen and produce changes in the amino acid sequence. Missense mutations, a form of base pair substitution, alter amino acids, which produce a change (i.e., the “sense”) in a single amino acid.
ANS: A The pedigree chart summarizes family relationships and shows which members of a family are affected by a genetic disease. The pedigree begins with the proband. The person who has a disease gene but is phenotypically normal is a carrier. The phenotype is the result of both genotype and environment; it is not a proband. Codominance is not represented by a proband, but it occurs when the heterozygote is distinguishable from both homozygotes.
ANS: C Muscular dystrophy is manifested primarily in males. Cystic fibrosis, neurofibromatosis, and Klinefelter syndrome are manifested in both males and females.
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. When the nurse is teaching the staff about X-linked recessive disorders, which information should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. (^) The trait is seen much more often in females than in males.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
ANS: C Environmental stressors can markedly increase the risk of aberrant epigenetic modification and are strongly associated with some cancers. While genetics, lifestyle choices, and coping skills can affect the development and management of cancer, they are not currently considered as being the primary factors in the epigenetic modification that occurs.
maintenance of all cells. These genes escape epigenetic silencing and remain transcriptionally active in all or nearly all cells. Housekeeping genes include encoding histones, DNA and RNA polymerases, and ribosomal RNA genes.
ANS: A A well-known disease example of imprinting is associated with a deletion of about 4 million base (Mb) pairs of the long arm of chromosome 15. When this deletion is inherited from the father, the child manifests Prader-Willi syndrome, whose features include short stature, hypotonia, small hands and feet, obesity, mild to moderate mental retardation, and hypogonadism. The same 4 Mb deletion, when inherited from the mother, causes Angelman syndrome, which is characterized by severe mental retardation, seizures, and an ataxic gait.
c. (^) insufficient nutrients.