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TCFP HAZARDOUS MATERIALS
OPERATIONS EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2025
- What is the primary goal of operations-level responders at hazardous materials incidents? A. Rescue victims from the hot zone B. Decontaminate all personnel C. Protect people, the environment, and property from the effects of the release D. Perform advanced offensive operations Rationale: Operations-level responders are trained to take defensive actions to contain the release and minimize harm.
- The Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) is primarily used during which phase of a hazardous materials incident? A. Initial response B. Recovery
C. Post-incident critique D. Investigation Rationale: The ERG helps first responders quickly identify hazards and appropriate initial protective actions.
- What are the three incident priorities at a hazardous materials scene? A. Rescue, recover, report B. Life safety, incident stabilization, property conservation C. Identify, isolate, inform D. Contain, neutralize, evacuate Rationale: These are the standard fire service priorities at all incidents, including hazmat scenes.
- Which of the following is a clue to the presence of hazardous materials? A. Large parking area B. Dead vegetation near a container C. Streetlights D. Absence of placards Rationale: Environmental indicators like dead plants may suggest a chemical release.
- What color section of the ERG contains information on evacuation distances and isolation zones? A. Blue B. Yellow C. Green D. Orange
B. Health hazard C. Flammability D. Special hazard Rationale: The blue section denotes health risks to humans. 10.Which U.S. federal agency regulates hazardous materials transportation? A. EPA B. DOT C. OSHA D. FEMA Rationale: The Department of Transportation regulates all aspects of hazmat transportation. 11.The term “hot zone” refers to: A. The area where decontamination occurs B. The staging area C. The area of contamination or highest hazard D. The command post Rationale: The hot zone is the exclusion zone with the greatest danger. 12.What is the purpose of decontamination? A. To prevent the spread of contaminants B. To repair damaged PPE C. To neutralize the hazard source D. To stop the release Rationale: Decon limits secondary contamination to responders and equipment.
13.Who has the ultimate authority for approving an emergency response plan at a hazmat incident? A. Hazmat team leader B. Safety officer C. Incident commander D. Fire department chief Rationale: The IC has overall responsibility for incident safety and strategy. 14.In the ERG, what do highlighted guide numbers indicate? A. Chemical is flammable B. Toxic inhalation hazard C. Requires PPE D. Requires water Rationale: Highlighted guides indicate substances that are TIHs and require special response. 15.Which organization sets standards for PPE used in hazmat incidents? A. FEMA B. NFPA C. NIOSH D. EPA Rationale: NFPA develops safety standards for PPE, including NFPA 1991– 1 994. 16.Which of the following is a responsibility of operations-level personnel? A. Perform offensive containment
D. Ethanol Rationale: UN 1203 is the identifier for gasoline. 20.Which type of tank car is most likely to carry pressurized gases? A. DOT 111 B. DOT 105 C. DOT 112 D. DOT 407 Rationale: DOT 105 and 112 are pressure tank cars for liquefied compressed gases. 21.Which agency enforces worker safety regulations at hazmat incidents? A. EPA B. OSHA C. DOT D. NRC Rationale: OSHA enforces safety and health regulations for workers. 22.What is the LEAST reliable method of identifying a hazardous material? A. Shipping papers B. Placards C. Human senses D. Container labels Rationale: Direct exposure through smell or taste is extremely dangerous. 23.The presence of which of the following may indicate a chemical suicide attempt? A. Multiple open containers of detergent
B. Chemical odors in an enclosed vehicle C. Warning signs posted by the occupant D. All of the above Rationale: These are all common signs of a chemical suicide. 24.Who should perform product control operations such as plugging a leak? A. Firefighter I B. Technician-level responders C. Law enforcement D. Any trained responder Rationale: Product control operations are technician-level skills. 25.Which term refers to the process of identifying the name and nature of a hazardous material? A. Detection and monitoring B. Suppression C. Overhaul D. Stabilization Rationale: Detection and monitoring involve identifying the hazardous substance. 26.What is the first step upon arriving at a suspected hazmat incident? A. Approach from the upwind side B. Begin decontamination C. Isolate and deny entry D. Establish a perimeter
B. Flammability C. Reactivity D. Special hazard Rationale: Red represents the flammability of the substance. 31.Which of the following statements best describes a “technical decontamination”? A. Quick wash-down with a fire hose B. Thorough decontamination using defined procedures and solutions C. Decon performed only by paramedics D. Decon used during mass casualty incidents Rationale: Technical decon is a structured process involving detailed methods and often specialized equipment. 32.What does the acronym “IDLH” stand for? A. Immediate Danger to Low Humidity B. Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health C. Inhalation Danger to Limited Humans D. Isolated Danger Level Hazard Rationale: IDLH refers to an atmosphere that poses an immediate threat to life or health. 33.Which action should operations-level responders take when confronted with a container leaking unknown gas? A. Enter the hot zone with SCBA and check it B. Plug the container
C. Establish isolation zones and deny entry D. Call for bomb squad Rationale: Responders at the operations level should focus on defensive tactics like isolation. 34.What is the hazard class for flammable gases? A. Class 1 B. Class 2 C. Class 4 D. Class 6 Rationale: Class 2 covers gases, with 2.1 specifically for flammable gases. 35.What is the most appropriate initial action zone size for a small toxic gas release in the open? A. 10 feet B. 25 feet C. 100 feet or more D. 1000 feet Rationale: A minimum of 100 feet is typically recommended depending on the gas. 36.What is the primary purpose of the Safety Data Sheet (SDS)? A. Provide disposal information B. Provide detailed chemical and safety information C. Provide medical direction D. Replace shipping papers
B. Police C. Incident Commander D. Decon officer Rationale: The IC is ultimately responsible for establishing zones and scene control. 41.What does a white diamond with a skull and crossbones symbol indicate? A. Corrosive B. Oxidizer C. Toxic material D. Explosive Rationale: The skull and crossbones indicate acute toxicity. 42.What is the primary purpose of the buddy system in hazmat operations? A. Load sharing B. Ensure safety through mutual accountability C. Decrease fatigue D. Ensure proper turnout gear fit Rationale: The buddy system ensures that no one works alone in a hazardous environment. 43.Which is a typical indication of a pressurized container? A. Square shape B. Painted black C. Rounded ends D. Wooden pallet base Rationale: Pressurized tanks are often cylindrical with rounded ends.
44.What is the hazard class of infectious substances? A. Class 6 B. Class 4 C. Class 7 D. Class 1 Rationale: Class 6 includes poisons and infectious substances. 45.What is the best method for determining wind direction on-scene? A. Looking at trees B. Using smoke indicators or wind socks C. Feeling with your hand D. Observing birds Rationale: Wind socks or smoke indicators provide visible, accurate info on wind direction. 46.What does the acronym BLEVE stand for? A. Basic Level Environmental Violation Event B. Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion C. Biological Level Energy Value Estimate D. Big Liquid Evaporation Event Rationale: A BLEVE occurs when a vessel containing a liquid under pressure ruptures due to heating. 47.What does the yellow diamond in the NFPA 704 symbol represent? A. Health B. Reactivity C. Flammability
B. UN/ID numbers C. Hazard classes D. Decontamination steps Rationale: Blue pages provide an alphabetical listing of substances. 52.Which term describes an action to minimize the impact of a hazmat release without stopping the leak? A. Defensive operation B. Offensive operation C. Technical mitigation D. Strategic release Rationale: Defensive actions like diking or diverting limit spread, not source control. 53.What document should always accompany hazardous materials during transport? A. NFPA placard B. Shipping papers C. SDS D. ERG Rationale: Shipping papers are required by DOT and include critical hazmat information. 54.Which is a reliable clue of the presence of hazardous materials? A. Shape of buildings B. Placards and labels C. Type of emergency vehicles
D. Type of road Rationale: DOT placards and labels are legal indicators of hazmat. 55.Which is a method for identifying unknown substances at a hazmat incident? A. Color alone B. Monitoring and detection equipment C. Sound and smell D. Reading the container Rationale: Detectors and monitoring tools provide reliable identification. 56.What is required when entering a hot zone? A. Radio B. Appropriate PPE C. Stopwatch D. Decon shower Rationale: PPE suitable for the known hazard must be worn in hot zones. 57.What is one goal of site management and control at hazmat incidents? A. Give media access B. Establish zones to limit exposure C. Eliminate PPE requirements D. Delay incident command Rationale: Site control helps limit contamination and enhance responder safety. 58.What is the term for the accidental release of a hazardous material? A. Spill
62.What is the best position for approaching a hazmat scene? A. Downwind and uphill B. Downhill and downwind C. Uphill and upwind D. Crosswind Rationale: Approaching from upwind and uphill minimizes exposure risk. 63.What hazard class includes corrosive substances? A. Class 2 B. Class 8 C. Class 4 D. Class 5 Rationale: Class 8 covers corrosive materials. 64.What does the white section of the ERG contain? A. Safety-related information and instructions B. Hazard classes C. Guide page numbers D. Evacuation charts Rationale: The white pages contain reference materials and instructions. 65.How are control zones determined at a hazmat incident? A. Randomly B. Based on hazard, weather, and material involved C. By DOT placard only D. By EPA guidelines alone
Rationale: Zones are established using factors like toxicity, wind, and spread potential. 66.What does the presence of frost on a tank’s surface typically indicate? A. Oxidizer B. Cryogenic material C. Organic peroxide D. Corrosive Rationale: Frost is a sign of very cold, cryogenic substances. 67.What is the function of Level C PPE? A. Fully encapsulated suit B. Chemical-resistant suit with air-purifying respirator C. Firefighting turnout gear D. Self-contained environment Rationale: Level C includes protective clothing and APRs for known airborne hazards. 68.Who is responsible for overall scene safety at a hazmat incident? A. Decon officer B. Logistics C. Safety officer D. Hazmat tech Rationale: The safety officer ensures scene safety across all zones. 69.Which incident level involves a large-scale release requiring multiple agencies? A. Level I
