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TCFP AIRCRAFT RESCUE FIRE FIGHTER (ARFF) PRACTICE EXAM 1 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (, Exams of Safety and Fire Engineering

Texas State Technical College-West TexasSafety and Fire Engineering

TCFP AIRCRAFT RESCUE FIRE FIGHTER (ARFF) PRACTICE EXAM 1 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2025

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 06/19/2025

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TCFP AIRCRAFT RESCUE FIRE FIGHTER
(ARFF) PRACTICE EXAM 1 QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2025
1. What is the primary goal of ARFF operations?
• Rescue of property
• Salvage of aircraft
• Life safety
• Fire containment
Life safety is always the top priority in ARFF operations, above all other
considerations.
2. Jet fuel is classified as which type of flammable liquid?
• Class A
• Class B
• Class B
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Download TCFP AIRCRAFT RESCUE FIRE FIGHTER (ARFF) PRACTICE EXAM 1 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS ( and more Exams Safety and Fire Engineering in PDF only on Docsity!

TCFP AIRCRAFT RESCUE FIRE FIGHTER

(ARFF) PRACTICE EXAM 1 QUESTIONS

AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED

ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2025

  1. What is the primary goal of ARFF operations?
  • Rescue of property
  • Salvage of aircraft
  • Life safety
  • Fire containment Life safety is always the top priority in ARFF operations, above all other considerations.
  1. Jet fuel is classified as which type of flammable liquid?
  • Class A
  • Class B
  • Class B
  • Class D Jet fuel is a flammable liquid, making it a Class B fuel hazard.
  1. What is the flash point of Jet A fuel?
  • Below - 40°F
  • 100°F
  • 200°F
  • Above 250°F Jet A has a flash point around 100°F, making it less volatile than avgas.
  1. What is the purpose of a twin agent unit?
  • To suppress Class A fires
  • To combine dry chemical and foam for rapid knockdown
  • To cool down hot brakes
  • To extinguish Class D fires Twin agent systems combine dry chemical and AFFF to maximize effectiveness on fuel fires.
  1. The maximum time allowed for an ARFF vehicle to reach any point on the airfield is:
  • 3 minutes
  • 3 minutes
  • 5 minutes
  • Prevent fuel spillage Proper proportioning ensures foam is mixed at the correct concentration for effective suppression.
  1. The primary hazard of composite materials when burned is:
  • Toxic smoke
  • Explosions
  • Radiation
  • Fuel pooling Composite aircraft materials release extremely toxic gases when burned. 10.What is the first priority during an ARFF response to a crash?
  • Rescue and removal of victims
  • Extinguishment of fire
  • Salvage operations
  • Protecting the environment Rescue operations take precedence, even before fire suppression if viable. Continue to Questions 11– 60 Would you like the next 50 questions (11–60) now in the same format? You said: YES ChatGPT said:

Here are questions 11 – 60 of the TCFP Aircraft Rescue Fire Fighter (ARFF) Practice Exam. Correct answers are in bold with italicized rationales. 11.What class of fire involves flammable metals?

  • Class A
  • Class B
  • Class C
  • Class D Class D fires involve combustible metals like magnesium or titanium, common in aircraft construction. 12.AFFF is primarily used for what type of fire?
  • Class A
  • Class C
  • Class D
  • Class B Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF) is used to extinguish flammable liquid (Class B) fires. 13.What is the typical expansion ratio of AFFF?
  • 1:
  • 5:
  • 10:1 to 20:
  • Flight suit Full PPE with SCBA is essential to protect against heat, toxic gases, and debris. 17.What term describes the sudden ignition of flammable gases from a hot surface?
  • Flashover
  • Autoignition
  • Backdraft
  • Radiation feedback Autoignition occurs without a spark or flame, when fuel vapors contact a hot surface. 18.What color identifies Avgas 100LL?
  • Red
  • Green
  • Blue
  • Purple Avgas 100LL (low lead) is colored blue to prevent confusion with other aviation fuels. 19.What is the most common aircraft material that presents a Class D fire risk?
  • Aluminum
  • Magnesium
  • Carbon fiber
  • Titanium Magnesium can ignite and burn extremely hot, requiring special extinguishing agents. 20.An ARFF vehicle is required to carry how many minutes of agent for a primary attack?
  • 1 minute
  • 2 minutes
  • 3 minutes
  • 5 minutes FAA regulations require ARFF vehicles to carry sufficient agent for a 3- minute primary application. 21.When does the ARFF standby typically begin for a scheduled aircraft landing?
  • When aircraft taxis
  • 5 minutes before touchdown
  • After landing gear is deployed
  • After landing is complete ARFF crews usually begin standby 5 minutes before a scheduled or emergency landing. 22.What is the first step upon arrival at an aircraft crash scene?
  • Establish perimeter
  • Release hazardous fibers when burned
  • Resist all fire Burning composites release harmful airborne particles and toxic gases. 26.The agent most effective for suppressing Class C fires is:
  • AFFF
  • CO₂ or dry chemical
  • Water
  • Halotron Class C fires involve energized electrical equipment, best suppressed with non-conductive agents. 27.What is the function of the piercing nozzle?
  • Apply foam broadly
  • Penetrate aircraft skin and apply agent inside
  • Ventilate smoke
  • Remove fuselage panels Piercing nozzles deliver extinguishing agents through aircraft fuselage or cargo areas. 28.What term describes the ability of a foam blanket to prevent reignition?
  • Spread rate
  • Expansion rate
  • Burnback resistance
  • Vapor pressure Burnback resistance indicates how well foam can resist reignition over time. 29.Halon agents are primarily used because they:
  • Interrupt the combustion chain reaction
  • Cool burning fuel
  • Smother the flame
  • Absorb fuel vapors Halon disrupts the chemical chain reaction, making it very effective for enclosed fires. 30.Aircraft doors should be opened:
  • At any time
  • Only when confirmed unarmed
  • Before fire suppression
  • With forcible entry Opening aircraft doors before verifying they're safe can trigger emergency slide deployment. 31.The National Incident Management System (NIMS) is required for:
  • Fire-only scenes
  • All federally funded incidents
  • Police-only incidents

35.What shape are aircraft fuselage cross-sections typically?

  • Square
  • Hexagonal
  • Circular or oval
  • Irregular Aircraft fuselages are mostly round to resist pressurization stress. 36.If an aircraft is upright, what is the best path of egress?
  • Nose
  • Overwing exit
  • Rear cargo door
  • Tail stabilizer Overwing exits are most accessible and intended for evacuation. 37.Aircraft with a "T-tail" have stabilizers located:
  • On landing gear
  • At the top of the vertical tail
  • Under the wings
  • Near the cockpit A T-tail places the horizontal stabilizer atop the vertical fin, affecting rescue access. 38.The safe distance for approaching an aircraft engine from the front is:
  • 5 feet
  • 25 feet
  • 100 feet
  • 50 feet Engines can create intense suction from the front; 25 feet is a minimum safe approach distance. 39.How long should ARFF gear be rinsed after foam exposure?
  • 10 seconds
  • 30 seconds
  • 1 minute
  • Thorough rinse per manufacturer guidelines Proper decontamination is required to remove foam and prevent chemical exposure. 40.Class B foam is applied using:
  • Straight stream
  • Power cone
  • Rain-down, bank-down, or roll-on methods
  • High-expansion blowers These techniques maximize foam blanket coverage and reduce fuel agitation. Questions 41– 60 41.Which of the following is NOT a Class B foam application method?
  • Cabin heat Wings often house fuel tanks and may leak or vent flammable fuel during emergencies. 45.Which of the following is true about oxygen bottles on aircraft?
  • Inert
  • Can explode when heated
  • Water-based
  • Non-reactive Pressurized oxygen bottles can violently rupture when exposed to fire or heat. 46.What is the primary cause of flash fires in aircraft interiors?
  • Open flames
  • Fuel vapors ignited by sparks
  • Static discharge
  • Smoke detector failure Fuel vapors accumulating in confined spaces can ignite quickly from a spark. 47.Which control surface is found on the trailing edge of the wing?
  • Rudder
  • Aileron
  • Elevator
  • Vertical stabilizer Ailerons help control roll and are found at the rear of each wing. 48.On modern jets, the most hazardous rescue condition is:
  • Fuselage access
  • Pressurized fuel lines and hydraulics
  • Electrical access
  • Tire removal High-pressure fuel and hydraulic systems pose significant risk if breached. 49.The color of a runway centerline is:
  • Blue
  • Red
  • White
  • Yellow Runway centerlines are marked with white lines. 50.In a multiple aircraft incident, the ARFF officer must:
  • Focus on one aircraft
  • Establish triage and prioritize rescue
  • Wait for reinforcements
  • Call off all responders Triage and rescue prioritization are vital when multiple casualties are involved.
  • Aircraft Emergency Response Guide
  • Airport Training Manual
  • NFPA 472 The Aircraft Emergency Response Guide outlines firefighting tactics and safety procedures. 55.What is the typical pressure range in ARFF dry chemical systems?
  • 50 – 100 psi
  • 150 – 250 psi
  • 400 – 600 psi
  • 10 – 25 psi Dry chemical systems are pressurized between 150–250 psi to allow rapid discharge. 56.What is the final ARFF priority after life safety and fire suppression?
  • Property conservation
  • Debriefing
  • Media control
  • Evidence collection Preserving property follows life safety and fire suppression in incident priorities. 57.Foam effectiveness decreases when:
  • Applied directly
  • In windy conditions
  • Fuel is polar solvent
  • On Class A fires Standard AFFF is not effective on polar solvent fuels like alcohol. 58.How is foam application most effective?
  • In short bursts
  • Continuous, gentle application
  • Straight stream into fuel
  • Pulsed spray A gentle, continuous flow forms a stable foam blanket without agitating the fuel. 59.Aircraft anti-icing fluid is:
  • Explosive
  • Flammable
  • Slippery and water-soluble
  • Corrosive Anti-icing fluids create slip hazards and must be handled carefully. 60.What is the best indicator of a secondary fire risk?
  • Rain
  • Leaking fuel and heat sources
  • Foam presence