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Detailed information on the limitations and requirements for student pilots, covering topics such as passenger and cargo carriage, visibility and cloud clearance, pilot-in-command responsibilities, fuel requirements, transponder usage, and more. It covers a wide range of essential knowledge and regulations that student pilots must be familiar with to ensure safe and compliant flight operations. The document delves into specific scenarios and situations, providing the correct answers and explanations to help student pilots understand their limitations and obligations. It serves as a comprehensive resource for student pilots to review and prepare for their training and eventual solo flights.
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What personal documents and endorsements are you required to have before you fly solo? - correct answers Student Pilot Cert, Medical Cert, Gov issued photo ID, Logbook with signed endorsement, Passed written knowledge test What are your student pilot limitations regarding carriage of passengers or cargo and flying for compensation or hire? - correct answers A student pilot may not act as PIC of an aircraft: That is carrying passengers, carrying property for compensation or hire Explain student pilot limitations concerning visibility and flight above clouds. - correct answers A student pilot may not act as PIC of an aircraft: With flight visibility less than 3 SM (day) or 5 SM (night) Who has the final authority and responsibility for the operation of the aircraft when you are flying solo? - correct answers The PIC. In this case, me Describe appropriate preflight actions pertaining to a local solo flight. - correct answers 1. Weather reports/forecasts 2. Fuel requirements 3. Alternatives available if flight cant be completed 4. Approved POH containing TO&LA data 5. Other reliable information regarding aircraft performance, elevation, rnwy slope, aircraft gross weight, wind, and temp During engine run up, you cause rocks, debris, and propeller blast to be directed toward another aircraft or person. Could this be considered careless or reckless operation of an aircraft? - correct answers Yes You may not fly as pilot of a civil aircraft within ______ hours after consumption of any alcoholic beverage, or while you have _____% by weight or more alcohol in your blood. - correct answers 8 hours & 0.04 BAC What are the general requirements pertaining to the use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses - correct answers Briefing: The PIC is responsible for briefing all passengers about the use of seat belts/harnesses Notification: The PIC must notify passengers when to fasten seatbelts/harnesses Crew Member: Pilot must wear seatbelt at all times while shoulder harness to be worn during TO&LA What is the minimum fuel reserve for day VFR flight, and on what cruise speed is the fuel reserve based? - correct answers No person may begin a flight under VFR unless there is enough fuel to fly beyond your intended landing point, assuming normal cruise speed for 30 min (day) and 45 min (night) A transponder with Mode C is required at all times in all airspace at and above _____ feet MSL, excluding that airspace at and below ______ feet AGL - correct answers 10,000 ft. MSL & 2,500 ft. AGL What aircraft certificates and documents must be on board when you are flying solo? - correct answers A- Air worthiness cert. R- Registration cert. R- Radio station class license O-Operating handbook W-Weight & Balance No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a ___________ - correct answers Collision Hazard Who has the right-of-way when two aircrafts are on final approach to land at the same time? - correct answers The aircraft at the lower altitude. But, shall not take advantage of this rule to fly under another aircraft or overtake. What action do you need to take if you are overtaking another aircraft and which aircraft has the right of way? - correct answers Each aircraft that is being overtaken has the right-of-way and each pilot of an overtaking aircraft shall alter their course to the right to pass well clear.
What should you do if you are flying a head-on collision course with another aircraft? - correct answers Each pilot shall alter their course to the right. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas? - correct answers An Altitude allowing emergency landing if a power unit fails without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.500 ft AGL - for areas other than congested500 ft away from anything-open water or sparsely populated area.1000 ft above highest obstacle within 2000 ft radius of your aircraft - in populated area List the memory items for an engine failure shortly after takeoff, in the traffic pattern, and in cruise flight. - correct answers Engine Failure after Take off Maintain aircraft control Airspeed Vg 76 KIAS Insufficient Altitude- Perform power-off Landing If time and altitude allows Fuel Selector- Check selected tank Fuel pump - check ON Mixture - Rich Carb Heat - On if power is not restored, power off landing. Engine Failure in Cruise flight A- airspeed Vg 76 B- best landing spot C- Checklist D- Declare emergency E- ELT According to the Airplane Flying Handbook, how much altitude would a typical airplane lose if it attempted a 180° turn back to the runway shortly after takeoff (page 18-7)? Describe ATP procedure regarding 180° turns during an engine failure during takeoff. - correct answers 1,316 feet from 300 ft AGL after a standard rate turn at glide speed of 65 knots. Do not attempt a 180 degree turn. Describe how pilot actions may differ between an engine failure and a partial loss of power - correct answers Following a complete engine failure, a forced landing is inevitable. Partial loss of power, there must be a decision made to continue flying or conduct an immediate landing. When is a go-around appropriate? - correct answers Whenever you are not able to make a stabilized landing, feel there would be any hazard in landing, or when advised by ATC. What is a stabilized approach, and how does a pilot determine if an approach is stabilized? - correct answers A stabilized approach is one in which the pilot establishes and maintains a constant angle glidepath towards a predetermined point on the landing runway. It is based on the pilot's judgment of certain visual clues, and depends on the maintenance of a constant final descent airspeed and configuration. GCASH. According to ATP's landing procedures, by what point during an approach must it be stabilized, and what must the pilot do if the approach is not stabilized by that point? - correct answers 200 ft. AGL. If not stabilized, GO AROUND. After touching down, when should the pilot apply wheel brakes? - correct answers After aerodynamic braking has become ineffective, on centerline. List the minimum equipment and instruments that must be working properly in your aircraft for day VFR flight. - correct answers A- Anti-collision lights T- Tachometer O- Oil pressure gauge M- Manifold pressure gauge
position 10 miles out and announce intention and receive clearance to enter traffic pattern. What is the standard direction of turns in the traffic pattern? Give an example of a visual display indicating a nonstandard traffic pattern - correct answers Standard: Left pattern. Nonstandard: 23R What is CTAF? Explain CTAF procedures at your training airports. - correct answers Common Traffic Advisory Frequency How can you determine if a runway is closed? - correct answers Runway is closed when it has large X's on the ends where the numbers of the runway should be. Temporary closures can be monitored through ATIS and NOTAM's What are the typical dimensions of Class Delta airspace and what requirements must be met prior to entry? - correct answers Class Delta air space is generally air space from the surface to 2500 feet above the airport elevation. 4nm Radius- you must have 2 way radio communication and communicate with the tower to enter class D controlled airspace. What is the class of airspace at the airport where you will be conducting your first solo? - correct answers Class Delta airspace If you recieve ATC instructions that you feel may compromise safety or will cause you to violate a FAR, what should you do? - correct answers Refuse the clearance and request an amended clearance telling ATC the concern. Take what ever reasonable immediate action is required to maintain the safety of your aircraft. Even if it requires breaking regulations. Contact ATC as soon as practicable to tell them the issue, and correct to the right regulation as soon as you can safely. What is the meaning of each of the ATC light signals? - correct answers Steady green light in flight- Cleared to land Flashing green light in flight- Return for landing Steady red light in flight- Give-way & continue circling Flashing red light in flight- Unsafe, do not land Steady green on ground- Cleared for takeoff Flashing red on ground- Taxi clear of runway In addition to equipment requirements and a student pilot certificate, what are the requirements must be met before a student pilot is authorized to fly solo with in class B airspace. - correct answers Logbook endorsement from authorized instructor specific to that class b airspace that the solo will be conducted in and that endorsement is dated within the preceding 90 day period that the solo will be conducted Explain the general transponder equipment and use requirements when operating within or near Class B airspace - correct answers A transponder is a simple means for an aircraft to communicate its position with air traffic control. All aircraft entering class B airspace must obtain ATC clearance prior to entry and must be prepared for denial of clearance. Aircraft must be equipped with a two-way radio for communications with ATC, an operating Mode C transponder and automatic altitude reporting equipment. Describe class B airspace boundaries and how they apply to an airport within the air space. Explain how you can use navigation equipment and/or ground reference points to identify the class B boundaries. (Draw a diagram, if necessary.) - correct answers Generally, from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nations busiest airports. The configuration of each class Bravo is individually tailored, consists of surface area and two or more layers resembling an upside down wedding cake. It is represented by a solid blue line on the map. You have called ATC just prior to entering Class B airspace, and the controller tells you to, "Squawk 2466 and ident." Are you now allowed to enter Class B airspace without any further instructions? Explain. - correct answers Negative, you must specifically be cleared in the Bravo On a sectional chart, what does a dashed magenta line around an airport indicate? - correct answers Class Echo SFC airspace Explain the minimum visibility and ceiling requirements for VFR flight in Class D airspace. - correct answers Visibility: 3SM
1000 ft. Above clouds 500 ft. Below clouds 2000 ft. Horizontally Can a student or recreational pilot request a special VFR clearance in Class D airspace when visibility is less than 3 miles? Explain your answer. - correct answers No, student pilots must have at least 3 statute miles of visibility and the ability to maneuver using ground references You have called ATC prior to entering class C airspace, and the controller responds with your call sign and tells you to standby. Are you now allowed to enter the airspace without any further instructions? Explain. - correct answers Yes, Class C only requires you to establish 2-way coms with ATC. A response from ATC with your call sign established 2-way coms. Describe the typical dimensions of Class C airspace. Is participation in the radar service mandatory within the outer area of Class C airspace? - correct answers 5 NM radius inner core surface to 4000 feet AGL10 NM radius outer core 1200 feet to 4000 feet AFLParticipation in radar service in the outer area is not mandatory.