SLP Praxis exam questions with answers 2 | Exercises Speech-Language Pathology

1. Which of the following is the major physical or organic factor underlying impairment in the

speech of persons with cleft palate?

a. Congenital hearing loss from otitis media

b. Broad irregular maxillary arch

c. Palatopharyngeal insufficiency

d. Irregular vocal fold abduction

Palatopharyngeal insufficiency or, more specifically, velopharyngeal insufficiency is the

major cause of the hypernasal speech associated with cleft palate. (a), (b), and (c) are

incorrect because otitis media is not congenital; in cleft palate, the maxillary arch is

often collapsed and thus is narrow; and irregular vocal fold abduction is not associated

with cleft palate.

2. An SLP determines the mean length of utterance (MLU) of a language sample from a three-year-

old child. Two weeks later, the SLP reevaluates the same sample and again determines the MLU.

The extent to which the two scores are similar is most directly a function of the:

a. Validity of the scores

b. Reliability of the scores

c. Skew of the score distribution

d. Speed of the measure

Reliability is the consistency with which a test measures an individual’s tendency to

produce the same result or the degree to which repeated measurement with the same

instrument of the same individual would tend to produce the same result. Larger values

indicate greater reliability; a reliability of 0.90 or greater is desirable for a test to be used

in making decisions about individuals.

3. An SLP is providing services to adults with neurogenic disorders of communication. Of the

following clients, which will likely have the most favorable management prognosis?

a. John, who has a brain injury resulting in a slight concussion

b. Jim, who has a traumatic brain injury resulting in paralysis

c. Juan, who has amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

d. Helen, who has Huntington's chorea

John is the correct answer because this injury is most limited in scope among those

mentioned and, therefore, most likely to be amenable to therapy or treatment. (b) is

incorrect because the problem described is diffused or dispersed throughout the head

with major impairments to the nerves. (c) and (d) are incorrect because the disorders

mentioned are progressive in nature.

4. An SLP has targeted the phonological process of "stopping on initial fricatives" for remediation

and is using the word "shoes" to establish the new behavior. The SLP now wishes to investigate

whether the speaker can generalize the newly learned pattern to untrained words. If it is

assumed that generalization will occur on words whose phonetic characteristics are most like

the trained word "shoes," which of the following words should be selected?

a. Shouting

b. Fished

c. Ocean

d. Shook

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Which of the following is the major physical or organic factor underlying impairment in the speech of persons with cleft palate? a. Congenital hearing loss from otitis media b. Broad irregular maxillary arch c. Palatopharyngeal insufficiency d. Irregular vocal fold abduction  Palatopharyngeal insufficiency or, more specifically, velopharyngeal insufficiency is the major cause of the hypernasal speech associated with cleft palate. (a), (b), and (c) are incorrect because otitis media is not congenital; in cleft palate, the maxillary arch is often collapsed and thus is narrow; and irregular vocal fold abduction is not associated with cleft palate.
An SLP determines the mean length of utterance (MLU) of a language sample from a three-year- old child. Two weeks later, the SLP reevaluates the same sample and again determines the MLU. The extent to which the two scores are similar is most directly a function of the: a. Validity of the scores b. Reliability of the scores c. Skew of the score distribution d. Speed of the measure  Reliability is the consistency with which a test measures an individual’s tendency to produce the same result or the degree to which repeated measurement with the same instrument of the same individual would tend to produce the same result. Larger values indicate greater reliability; a reliability of 0.90 or greater is desirable for a test to be used in making decisions about individuals.
An SLP is providing services to adults with neurogenic disorders of communication. Of the following clients, which will likely have the most favorable management prognosis? a. John, who has a brain injury resulting in a slight concussion b. Jim, who has a traumatic brain injury resulting in paralysis c. Juan, who has amyotrophic lateral sclerosis d. Helen, who has Huntington's chorea  John is the correct answer because this injury is most limited in scope among those mentioned and, therefore, most likely to be amenable to therapy or treatment. (b) is incorrect because the problem described is diffused or dispersed throughout the head with major impairments to the nerves. (c) and (d) are incorrect because the disorders mentioned are progressive in nature.
An SLP has targeted the phonological process of "stopping on initial fricatives" for remediation and is using the word "shoes" to establish the new behavior. The SLP now wishes to investigate whether the speaker can generalize the newly learned pattern to untrained words. If it is assumed that generalization will occur on words whose phonetic characteristics are most like the trained word "shoes," which of the following words should be selected? a. Shouting b. Fished c. Ocean d. Shook

 Generalization probes are a principle feature of phonological therapy. The answer choices require the clinician to pay attention to the position of the fricative sound in a word and also the word's syllable structure

The Spanish-speaking parents of a 9-year-old bilingual child report that their child communicates in Spanish with complete utterances and has a good vocabulary in comparison to other children in the neighborhood. Their concern is that the child interrupts their conversations and has not learned social rules that are important within the family and community. Testing confirms similar problems in English-speaking settings. The SLP would most likely recommend that therapy focus on which of the following language areas? a. Syntax b. Morphology c. Semantics d. Pragmatics  The parents have described adequate syntactic and semantic knowledge by the child. Furthermore, testing in English confirms similar pragmatic problems.
Which of the following should be the primary focus of early language intervention for at-risk infants? a. Establishing object permanence through play activities b. Training primary caregivers to facilitate language learning c. Creating readiness activities in the context of play d. Enhancing social communication through play activities
Fela is a third-grade student in a public school. She is a speaker of African American Vernacular English (AAVE) who has difficulty with the Standard American English (SAE) dialect used in her classroom. Her teacher believes that Fela's language skills are affecting her academic performance and has referred her to the school's speech-language pathologist. Which of the following is an appropriate rationale for providing language intervention for Fela? Select all that apply. a. It will likely foster better communication with Fela's linguistically and culturally diverse peers. b. It will likely improve Fela's code-switching ability with her teacher and other adult speakers of SAE. c. It may expand Fela's later academic and vocational opportunities. d. It will likely lead Fela to adopt SAE as her primary dialect.
Federal laws regarding freedom of access to information stipulate that client records kept or written by healthcare professionals can be: a. Reviewed only by other healthcare professionals b. Reviewed only by the clients themselves unless the client provides written permission to share with others c. Reviewed by anyone who submits a formal written request d. Released only by subpoena
To justify providing individual treatment for a 2½ year old with apraxia of speech, which of the following would be LEAST important for the SLP to include in the evaluation report? a. A description of the child's typical interaction with peers b. Relevant prognostic data

a. Articulation b. Phonation c. Proprioception d. Respiration  Fiber-optic nasopharyngoscopy or laryngoscopy is a commonly used approach to evaluate vocal fold anatomy and physiology for voice production (phonation).

Hearing loss in infants who are born with a cleft palate is usually related to which of the following? a. The infant's inability to create positive pressure in the oral cavity b. Malformation of the middle-ear ossicles associated with malformation of the palate c. Eustachian tube dysfunction d. Cochlear dysfunction  Eustachian tube dysfunction, a major factor contributing to middle-ear disease and conductive hearing loss, is nearly universal in infants with cleft palate.
Children diagnosed as having specific language impairments are likely to exhibit the greatest deficits in which of the following? a. Production of sentences with appropriate inflectional morphology and syntax b. Acquisition of word meanings c. Comprehension of short sentences d. Motoric aspects of written expression  Children with specific language impairments typically have difficulty producing utterances that are morphologically and syntactically well formed.
A 70-year-old female has dysphagia characterized by poor posterior oral containment of the bolus during the oral preparatory stage, causing aspiration before the swallow. Cognition and the pharyngeal stage of the swallow are intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment approach for the client? a. Providing a puree diet with thickened liquids b. Having the client flex her head forward (perform the chin-down posture) during oral preparation and transit stages of the swallow c. Having the client turn (rotate) her head to the right when swallowing d. Providing a diet that consists of thin liquids  This treatment alters oral configuration to place the base of the tongue superior to the bolus inside the oral cavity. Since liquid cannot flow uphill against gravity, this intervention compensates for impaired palatoglossus contraction, which is causing impaired posterior oral containment.
Which of the following is the most important acoustic cue that distinguishes between an unreleased final /p/ and an unreleased final /b/, as in "cap" versus "cab"? a. Locus frequency of burst b. Voice onset time c. Vocal fundamental frequency d. Duration of the preceding vowel  Research shows that vowel duration influences a listener's perception of voicing. Vowels that precede unreleased voiced stop consonants are as much as 1.5 times as long as vowels that precede voiceless stops.

A single exposure of several hours duration to continuous music with an overall level of 100 dB SPL will most likely produce a. Tinnitus and a temporary threshold shift in high frequencies b. Tinnitus and a distortion of speech perception c. A temporary threshold shift in the low frequencies d. A permanent threshold shift
According to research on the development of Brown's morphemes in young children, which of the following is a determinant of acquisition order? a. Phonological ease of production b. Figurative-language ability c. Semantic and syntactic complexity d. Sequencing and segmentation strategies
After sustaining a CVA, Ms. Williams, age 75, was referred to an SLP for a speech and language evaluation. While Ms. Williams was describing the cookie-theft picture, the SLP observed that her grammatical structure appeared to be intact and her prosody was normal but that many of her sentences were meaningless, did not fit the context, and included nonsensical paraphasic errors. Additional testing also revealed that Ms. Williams exhibited poor repetition and naming skills, did not respond appropriately to many simple commands, and had difficulty reading. Ms. Williams appeared happy and talked excessively. She did not appear to be aware of her communication deficits. What is the most likely location of the lesion? a. Left posterior superior temporal gyrus b. Left inferior frontal gyrus c. Left superior frontal gyrus d. Left inferior parietal gyrus
An SLP who is treating an adolescent who stutters designs a treatment plan that includes three fluency management strategies: prolonged speech, cancellation, and pullout. Which of the following is true about the use of these treatment strategies? Select all that apply. a. Use of prolonged speech is likely to reduce the frequency of part-word repetitions and sound prolongations significantly. b. Each of the three strategies entails deliberate regulation of speech motor movements. c. The client will seek to apply cancellation whenever he feels anxious about the possibility of stuttering overtly. d. The client will seek to apply pullout during the course of part-word repetition or sound prolongation.
An SLP has a consultation with a self-referred adult who has a fluency disorder. The client had been enrolled in treatment programs with the clinician three times before and had reached from 75 to 90 percent fluency before dropping out of treatment for various reasons. Thirty percent of the client's syllables are spoken disfluently. The client also exhibits signs of depression and anxiety. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the SLP to take? a. Encouraging the client to re-enroll for remedial services b. Encouraging the client to take responsibility for maintaining fluency by using techniques learned in the previous treatment sessions c. Recommending that the client schedule a neurological evaluation

 Whispered speech is composed largely of aperiodic sounds, as the vocal folds do not vibrate while whispering is taking place.

Six months ago, an SLP evaluated 4-year-old Molly's speech fluency during conversation. At that time, she displayed physically relaxed repetitions of words and phrases (occurring at a frequency of 2 per 100 words), and interjections such as "um" (occurring at a frequency of 1 per 100 words). She did not display any sound prolongations or facial grimaces; she did not produce any pitch rises or phonatory breaks; and she did not appear to avoid any sounds or words. Results from several formal tests suggested that her articulation and language development were within normal limits. Molly reportedly began producing repetitions and interjections at age 24 months, and the frequency of these disfluency types reportedly has remained stable since then. The SLP did not recommend speech-language intervention following the previous evaluation; however, she did provide the parents with information about fluency development, symptoms of stuttering, and general suggestions for how to facilitate children's fluency. A reevaluation is scheduled for next week. Which of the following is most appropriate for the SLP to do if Molly's speech fluency has remained the same since the previous evaluation? a. Recommend that Molly immediately begin fluency therapy, in which the focus is on reducing the frequency of repetitions and interjections in her conversational speech b. Recommend that Molly be released from the SLP's active caseload c. Recommend that Molly be referred for psychological counseling, with a focus on helping Molly improve speech fluency by learning how to manage anxiety more effectively d. Recommend monthly evaluations of Molly's speech fluency until she is five years old  Molly's fluency development was within normal limits at the previous evaluation, and, based on the parents' report, it also seemed to be within normal limits at age 2. Further, no other concerns about Molly's communication development were mentioned in the scenario. Thus, it appears that Molly has never stuttered and her communication skills have been and continue to be within normal limits. Therefore, it is unnecessary to reevaluate her speech or enroll her in fluency therapy.
"Book read me." "Me TV see." These utterances, spoken by a 3-year-old monolingual English- speaking child, indicate that the child most likely has a problem with which of the following? a. Semantic redundancy b. Syntactic relationships c. Morphological relationships d. Pragmatics  The utterances are not in the correct order, which is characteristic of a syntactic error.
Which of the following is a type of perturbation that can be measured to determine the amount of noise in the voice? a. Changes in the frequency range between F1 and F2 over time b. Changes in the frequency range between F2 and F3 over time c. F3 cycle-to-cycle variations in sound energy over time d. F0 cycle-to-cycle variations in sound energy over time  Perturbation is a disturbance in the quality of the laryngeal tone, or fundamental frequency, of the voice.
Which of the following describes an important diagnostic distinction between apraxia of speech and dysarthria?

a. Apraxia of speech is a result of lower motor neuron lesions, whereas dysarthria is the result of upper motor neuron lesions. b. Clients with apraxia of speech lack the ability to monitor reactive speech, whereas clients with dysarthria lack the ability to sequence volitional speech movements. c. Strength and coordination of the speech musculature are intact in clients with apraxia of speech, whereas slowness, weakness, incoordination, or altered tone of the speech musculature are associated with dysarthria. d. Apraxia of speech is characterized by distortions, omissions, and substitutions, whereas dysarthria is characterized by inconsistent, highly variable misarticulations.  Dysarthria is a motor speech disorder characterized by slowness, weakness, incoordination, or altered tone of the speech production mechanism. The definition of apraxia includes the absence of any deficits in strength, tone, or coordination and rather is characterized by deficits in motor planning and/or programming of speech.

Naturalistic teaching chiefly involves which of the following? a. Establishing successful and useful communication b. Using multiple trials and training techniques c. Using more adult-initiated interactions than child-initiated interactions d. Using differential reinforcement, fading, and modeling
Ms. Helene, a 60-year-old woman with a suspected neurological disorder, is referred for speech- language evaluation. She achieves a score of 35/50 on a measure of confrontation object- naming ability. This score is below norms established for individuals of her age and educational level. Based on these results alone, which of the following statements can most reliably be made about Ms. Helene's disorder? a. She has anomic aphasia, which might or might not be associated with other language deficits. b. She has aphasia, but the type of aphasia cannot be specified on the basis of this test score alone. c. She does not have aphasia but probably does have a memory disturbance. d. She has difficulty with naming, but the precise nature of the deficit cannot be determined on the basis of this test score alone.  Ms. Helene has a suspected neurological disorder and she achieves a score that is below the norms for individuals her age. Given this information alone, the most that can be said is that she has difficulty with naming; the precise nature of her deficit cannot be determined.
A 67-year-old male patient with no history of swallowing problems has undergone a cardiothoracic surgical procedure. Postoperatively, he is found to be aspirating while swallowing and is diagnosed with a left vocal-fold paralysis and left pharyngeal paresis. Which of the following is the most likely etiology? a. An intraoperative CVA in the right pons b. Damage to the right recurrent laryngeal nerve c. Damage to the left recurrent laryngeal nerve d. A left hemispheric stroke  The left recurrent laryngeal nerve courses under the aortic arch in its course back to innervate the left larynx and the inferior pharynx. The nerve can be damaged in

muscles and can make movement difficult or even impossible. Hypotonic CP is caused by damage to the cerebellum of the brain during childbirth. This brain damage can result in floppy muscles, excessive flexibility, issues with stability, and developmental delays. Bulbar palsy is a set of conditions that can occur due to damage to the lower cranial nerves. Clinical features of bulbar palsy range from difficulty swallowing and a lack of a gag reflex to inability to articulate words and excessive drooling. Bulbar palsy is most commonly caused by a brainstem stroke or tumor.

For a test of expressive morphology and syntax for speakers of African American Vernacular English (AAVE), the test item that would be considered LEAST biased against such speakers would be one requiring: a. Use of the auxiliary verb "be" in the present progressive tense b. Use of the past-tense ending "-ed" c. Use of sentences with multiple negation d. Agreement of personal pronouns with their antecedents in gender and number  The morphological feature listed is one in which African American Vernacular English (AAVE) does not differ from Standard American English (SAE).
In the treatment of acute Wernicke's aphasia, the initial focus should be on: a. Encouraging self-monitoring of the adequacy of verbal output b. Increasing the rate of speech c. Improving the client's ability to elaborate verbally d. Increasing the complexity of sentence structures  Wernicke's aphasia results in deficits related to the ability to recognize the adequacy of one's verbal production.
Research regarding the use of intensive phonemic-awareness treatment for children who have difficulty learning to read has demonstrated that the treatment: a. Is effective only for children from 4 to 8 years old b. Is effective mainly with children who have remediated all phonological process errors c. Is effective only when combined with a supplemental literacy program d. Might have no direct relationship to improvement in reading abilities  Intensive phonemic-awareness treatment programs are thought to improve reading by training children to better differentiate and process speech sounds. However, to date, research has not successfully separated the effects of intensive intervention, so no direct relationship has yet been proved.
Which of the following would be most likely to help a client who has aphonia? a. Development of phonation through coughing or throat clearing b. Pairing the production of /s/ and /z/ c. Respiratory exercises d. Easy initiation of phonation
A child with discourse problems is most likely to need remediation directed at which of the following? a. Morphology b. Cohesive devices c. An initial lexicon d. Gestural communication

 Cohesive devices, such as prenominal references, coordinating conjunctions, and conjunctive adverbs, are used to link clausal and sentential elements to form a coherent and unified message.

SLP Praxis exam questions with answers 2, Exercises of Speech-Language Pathology

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