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SLP Praxis exam questions with answers 3, Exercises of Speech-Language Pathology

Northeastern University (NU)Speech-Language Pathology

Speech-language pathology Praxis exam practice multiple choice questions with answers and explanations

Typology: Exercises

2022/2023

Uploaded on 01/26/2023

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1. A regionally or socially distinct variety of language identified by a distinct set of words and structures is
called:
a. Code switching
b. A dialect
c. Bilingualism
d. Socioeconomic bilingualism
2. Disorders of the _____ result in rigidity, jerky and purposeless movements (chorea), and slow writhing
snakelike movements (athetosis):
a. Thalamus
b. Corpus collosum
c. Basal ganglia
d. Medulla
3. When carcinoma affects the cricoid and trachea, the damage is:
a. Supraglottic
b. Subglottic
c. Aryepiglottic
d. Epiglottic
4. In _____ otitis media, the infection continues over a long period and the tympanic membrane is
permanently ruptured:
a. Serous
b. Acute
c. Hemangioma
d. Chronic
5. In the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease, the patient has more:
a. Cognition problems than language problems
b. Language problems than cognition problems
c. Muteness
d. Disorientation
6. Injecting Botulinum toxin (Botox) directly into one or both vocal folds (thyroarytenoid muscles) has been
used for which of the following voice conditions?
a. Laryngeal webs
b. Spasmodic dysphonia
c. Carcinoma
d. Polyps
7. Contact ulcers may be caused by all of the following except:
a. Chronic throat clearing
b. Hard-glottal attack
c. Intubation
d. Psychogenic problems
8. Patients who exhibit _____ have difficulty making nonspeech sounds and cannot move the muscles of the
throat, soft palate, and tongue for nonspeech purposes:
a. Apraxia of speech
b. Oral apraxia
c. Limb apraxia
d. Developmental apraxia of speech
9. For some persons who stutter, disfluencies tend to occur in clusters more often than would be expected
by chance. This phenomenon is called the
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Download SLP Praxis exam questions with answers 3 and more Exercises Speech-Language Pathology in PDF only on Docsity!

  1. A regionally or socially distinct variety of language identified by a distinct set of words and structures is called: a. Code switching b. A dialect c. Bilingualism d. Socioeconomic bilingualism
  2. Disorders of the _____ result in rigidity, jerky and purposeless movements (chorea), and slow writhing snakelike movements (athetosis): a. Thalamus b. Corpus collosum c. Basal ganglia d. Medulla
  3. When carcinoma affects the cricoid and trachea, the damage is: a. Supraglottic b. Subglottic c. Aryepiglottic d. Epiglottic
  4. In _____ otitis media, the infection continues over a long period and the tympanic membrane is permanently ruptured: a. Serous b. Acute c. Hemangioma d. Chronic
  5. In the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease, the patient has more: a. Cognition problems than language problems b. Language problems than cognition problems c. Muteness d. Disorientation
  6. Injecting Botulinum toxin (Botox) directly into one or both vocal folds (thyroarytenoid muscles) has been used for which of the following voice conditions? a. Laryngeal webs b. Spasmodic dysphonia c. Carcinoma d. Polyps
  7. Contact ulcers may be caused by all of the following except: a. Chronic throat clearing b. Hard-glottal attack c. Intubation d. Psychogenic problems
  8. Patients who exhibit _____ have difficulty making nonspeech sounds and cannot move the muscles of the throat, soft palate, and tongue for nonspeech purposes: a. Apraxia of speech b. Oral apraxia c. Limb apraxia d. Developmental apraxia of speech
  9. For some persons who stutter, disfluencies tend to occur in clusters more often than would be expected by chance. This phenomenon is called the

a. Adjacency effect b. Developmental c. Neurogenic d. Psychogenic

  1. The malleus, incus, and stapes form the: a. Tympanic membrane b. Stapedius muscle c. Tensor tympani d. Ossicular chain
  2. Constrictions are created by the articulators. A constriction near a node or an antinode will change the frequency of the formant and is a perturbation of the standing wave in the vocal tract. A constriction near an antinode will manifest all of the following except: a. Volume velocity at a maximum b. Pressure is at a minimum c. Formant frequency will be lowered d. Pressure is at a maximum
  3. You hear Luis, a kindergartener from Mexico, playing with his friends on the playground at recess. One of the friends has a birthday. You hear Luis say things like “Cuantos años tienes? Can I have some cake? Feliz cumpleaños! Let’s play with your new ball!” It is clear that Luis is: a. exhibiting code-switching, a typical linguistic behavior for persons who are bilingual b. showing signs of linguistic confusion and may need to be evaluated for a possible language impairment c. just going through a temporary stage where he has difficulty differentiating Spanish from English d. showing clinically significant signs of a syntactic deficit in both languages, and needs to be evaluated immediately for an expressive language delay
  4. A public school teacher refers DePonce, an African American second grader, for speech–language assessment. According to the teacher, “DePonce does not always say his words correctly. I think he might have a grammar problem, too.” The clinician screens DePonce and finds that he uses African American English (AAE). She decides to carry out a formal evaluation to ascertain whether he has a speech– language difference or a disorder. DePonce’s parents are not happy with the teacher’s referral. They share that they think his speech and language development are within normal limits. Nevertheless, they agree to testing. The clinician finds that DePonce has one phonological pattern that is not typical of children who speak AAE, but the rest of his patterns are typical of AAE speakers. The clinician can accurately conclude that: a. DePonce does not need to be placed in speech–language therapy, as his speech and language problems are developmental. b. DePonce does not need speech–language services because his grammatical and articulatory– phonological patterns (with one exception) are the same as those of his peers. c. DePonce needs to be placed into speech–language therapy with the goal of teaching him Standard American English grammatical patterns. d. DePonce should receive speech–language therapy to teach him correct production of the one articulatory pattern he produces that is not typical of speakers of AAE, but the clinician should not address patterns that are commensurate with those of his AAE-speaking peers.
  5. A speech language pathologist will receive compensation for utilizing a specific brand of thickener in her private practice. Which ethical dilemma is present in this scenario? a. Negligence b. Conflict of interest

d. 12-15 years old

  1. The 3rd frontal gyrus, also known as Brodmann area 44, correlates with what anatomical area or structure? a. Basal ganglia b. Broca’s area c. Wernicke’s area d. Heschel’s gyrus
  2. Kennedy is a 57-year-old woman who has noticed increased muscle fatigue during meals. After resting, the fatigue appears to disappear. Kennedy went to the neurologist and was diagnosed with damage to the acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. What disease is Kennedy likely diagnosed with? a. Parkinson’s disease b. Alzheimer’s disease c. Muscular dystrophy d. Myasthenia gravis  Myasthenia gravis is caused by a miscommunication at the neuromuscular junction. The disease usually first targets jaw, facial, and neck muscles.
  3. During an oral motor exam, you notice flattened nasolabial folds. Which of the following cranial nerves is most likely damaged? a. CN VIII b. CN XII c. CN VII d. CN X  CN VII, the facial nerve, innervates muscles of the face (e.g., lips and cheeks).
  4. A speech-language pathologist evaluates a woman who presents with slurred speech, excess and equal stress, distorted vowels, and irregular articulatory breakdowns. Which type of dysarthria is described? Where is the probable site of lesion? a. Ataxic dysarthria; cerebellum b. Spastic dysarthria; basal ganglia c. Ataxic dysarthria; basal ganglia d. Spastic dysarthria; cerebellum  The characteristics described are concurrent with ataxic dysarthria. Ataxic dysarthria is caused by damage to the cerebellum.
  5. Austin is a 24-month-old toddler who is utilizing gestures to provide additional meaning to his utterances. For example, he will point to the back door while saying, “go!”. Which of the following is true regarding Austin’s use of gestures? a. Austin’s use of gestures does not predict his use of multi-word utterances. b. Austin is using supplementary gestures. c. Austin’s caregivers should ignore his gestures and reinforce spoken words. d. Austin is using complementary gestures.  Supplementary gestures add information to spoken utterances. Pointing to the back door allowed the caregiver to know exactly where Austin wanted to go. Without the gesture, the caregiver would have been responsible for guessing what Austin wanted.
  6. Which of the following is associated with a posterior cerebral artery (PCA) stroke? a. Apraxia b. Non-fluent aphasia c. Fluent aphasia d. Hemianopia

 Typically, a posterior cerebral artery stroke results in hemianopsia. The PCA supplies blood to the occipital lobe which is responsible for vision.

  1. Blake, a speech-language pathologist, is creating his assessment plan for a pediatric evaluation he has later this week. Which of the following is an example of a formal measure used during assessment? a. Language sample b. Criterion referenced test c. Developmental scale d. Behavioral observation  Developmental scales are formal assessment measures because they contain psychometric properties and assess overall achievement/mastery of skill compared to peers.
  2. Residue in the vallecula is most likely caused by: a. Reduced tongue base retraction b. Reduced laryngeal elevation c. Reduced buccal tension d. Reduced peristalsis  The vallecula is formed by the tongue base and the epiglottis. Reduced tongue base retraction will result in incomplete bolus expulsion in the vallecula.
  3. Which of the following would be the most appropriate assessment material for a child in 5th^ grade with difficulties in content, form, and use? a. CELF- b. GFTA- c. The Rossetti d. SSI-  The CELF-5 is normed on children-young adults ages 5-21 and assesses language skills using a variety of different subtests. The GFTA-3 measures speech sound abilities in the area of articulation in children-young adults ages 2-21. The Rossetti Infant-Toddler Language Scale assesses preverbal and verbal aspects of communication and interaction in young children. The SSI-4 measures stuttering severity in children and adults in the 4 areas of speech behavior: frequency, duration, physical concomitants, and naturalness of the individual’s speech.
  4. Katie is a full time vocal performer. She notices a problem with her voice and schedules an appointment with the ENT where she is diagnosed with vocal nodules. What type of vocal disorder was Katie diagnosed with? a. Neurogenic voice disorder b. Psychological voice disorder c. Structural voice disorder d. Conversion voice disorder  Structural voice disorders result in physical changes to the tissue. Neurogenic voice disorders result from problems with the central or peripheral nervous system innervation to the larynx that affect functioning of the vocal mechanism. Psychological voice disorders are caused by stressors which lead to habitual, maladaptive aphonia or dysphonia. Conversion voice disorders are rare psychogenic disorders and characterized by a total loss of voice due to psychological trauma or conflict that is manifested physically.
  5. Which of the following is true regarding core words used in augmentative and alternative (AAC) devices? a. AAC devices contain only core words. b. Core words are a list of developmental words. c. Core words are the most important words for users to learn. d. Core words are a small number of words that make up the majority of conversation.

d. Targeting marked sounds  To reduce nasality, promoting oral awareness is crucial with this population.

  1. One of the behavioral objectives in a client’s initial therapy plan is written as “The client will use easy onsets on 9 of 10 trials by the end of 10 therapy sessions as measured by clinician data collection.” Which of the following elements is missing from this objective? a. A criterion b. A condition c. An action d. A time frame  This goal provides no information about the conditions under which the client will perform the target behavior of using easy onsets. It should state the important conditions that constitute each trial – for example, whether the client will produce single words, phrases, or sentences on each trial; whether the client will imitate a model or be provided with other cuing; and whether the easy onsets will be practiced with specific sounds. The criterion (a) in this goal is 9 out of 10 trials. A criterion is the target level of performance. The action (c) in this goal is using easy onsets. The action is the behavior the client will perform. The time frame (d) in this goal is “by the end of 10 therapy sessions.”
  2. A child with a language delay is in Brown’s Stage V of morpheme mastery. Which of the following would not be appropriate to target in intervention? a. Regular plural inflection -s b. Irregular third person c. Contractible auxiliary d. Contractible copula  Brown’s Stage V consists of third person irregular (She does. He has.), uncontractible auxiliary (Are they swimming? Were you hungry? I’m not laughing; she is. She was laughing; not me.) , contractible copula (She’s ready. They’re here. Daddy’s got tomatoes. My dog’s lost his collar.), and contractible auxiliary (They’re coming. He’s going. I’m opening it up. We’re hiding. It’s freezing.). Regular plurals are part of Brown’s Stage II and therefore would be inappropriate.
  3. During an evaluation of a 6-year-old female patient, an SLP asks her to produce sounds requiring various tongue heights. You notice she has a hard time producing words that require high vowels. Based on these findings, which of the following words would be most difficult for this patient? a. “had” and “hot” b. “heat” and “who” c. “head” and “hoe” d. “heat” and “hot”  Tongue height refers to the relative position of the highest portion of the tongue (high, mid, or low) relative to the roof of the mouth. High vowels, such as those found in “heat” and “who”, are produced with the tongue close to the roof of the mouth (and with the lower jaw relatively high). Low vowels, such as those found in “had” and “hot”, are produced with the tongue much lower and with the jaw lowered (and the mouth more open). Mid vowels, such as those found in “head” and “hoe”, are produced with the tongue in the middle of the mouth (with the jaw opening).
  4. While planning the intervention and treatment of a 67-year-old female with a recent history of TBI, an SLP attempts to elicit and improve the patient’s /w/ sound. Which of the following phonetic placement techniques would be most appropriate? a. The tip of the tongue is raised to the post-alveolar ridge behind the upper central incisors. Voiced air pressure explodes out of the mouth through a small opening. The velum is closed. The vocal

folds are vibrating. The tip of the tongue is raised to the post-alveolar ridge, behind the upper central incisors. The air pressure is exploded out of the mouth through a small opening. b. Bilabial rounding and movement toward the lop position required for the next vowel. High back tongue posture, moving forward toward the tongue position for the next vowel. Voiced air stream emitted through the rounded lips. Velum opened. Vocal folds vibrating. c. The tip of the tongue to the alveolar ridge. Nasal emission of air (velum open). Vocal folds vibrating. d. Back of the tongue contacts the soft palate. Air stream emitted through the nose (velum open). Vocal folds vibrating.

  1. An SLP is screening a patient with a full aphasia battery. The patient exhibits difficulty in semantic processing, such as reactive naming and providing definitions of words. The patient says, “A shoemaker repairs shoes” to which the SLP notes as a correct statement. Which type of aphasia is most consistent with these finding? a. Wernicke’s Aphasia b. Broca’s Aphasia c. Anomic Aphasia d. Global Aphasia  Anomic aphasia is a mild form of aphasia in which the individual has difficulty with word-finding, or naming items. In anomic aphasia, speech is typically fluent and produced with seeming ease. However, the individual might have trouble retrieving specific words, especially nouns and verbs.
  2. It is well known that humans perceive sound before birth. Which of the following statements about fetal speech sound recognition is true? a. Fetal speech sound recognition, although present, does not change throughout pre-birth development b. By the third trimester, fetuses become familiar with recurrent, maternal speech sounds c. By the first trimester, fetuses have developed full recognition of maternal speech sounds d. As fetuses mature, they require a higher intensity of sound to respond, demonstrating reduced speech sound recognition at later stages of development  As fetuses mature, they require a lower intensity of sound (20-30 dB) in order to respond. Fetuses demonstrate the ability to not only hear but perceive differences in sounds, thus becoming familiar with recurrent, maternal speech sounds.
  3. Inadequate velopharyngeal closure is frequently associated with which of the following? a. Nasal air emission accompanying production of pressure consonants b. Increased intraoral pressure during production of pressure consonants c. Hyponasal resonance of vowels, glides, and liquids d. No changes in speech are realized through inadequate velopharyngeal closure  Inadequate velopharyngeal closure is frequently associated with: hypernasal resonance of vowels, glides, and liquids; reduced or diminished intraoral pressure during production of pressure consonants (fricatives, stops, affricates); nasal air emission accompanying production of pressure consonants; and unusual substitutions, such as the use of glottal stops for stop consonants and the use of pharyngeal fricatives for sibiliants.
  4. A child is referred to you by his preschool teacher. This child, Jaden, is 4 years 5 months old and has transferred from out of state. In his previous state, Jaden was reportedly assessed by a speech–language pathologist who recommended that he receive intervention before kindergarten. According to the report from the previous clinician, Jaden uses the phonological processes of gliding, consonant-cluster reduction, stopping, reduplication, and final-consonant deletion. Your assessment confirms the presence of these phonological processes. You would begin treatment by addressing: