Download SMQT Exam Prep: Questions & Answers on Antipsychotics & Healthcare Regulations and more Exams Survey Sampling Techniques in PDF only on Docsity!
SMQT exam 2025, SMQT questions and answers, Social
Model of Quality Transformation, SMQT test prep,
updated SMQT content, SMQT study material
How wide must an exit corridor be? - ANSWER- 8 feet Antipsychotic Medications - ANSWER-1. Thorazine (Chlorpromazine)
- Haldol (Haloperidol)
- Abilify (Aripiprazole)
- Clozaril (Clozapine)
- Zyprexa (Olanzapine)
- Latuda (Lurasidone)
- Seroquel (Quetipine)
- Risperdal (Risperidone) What to look for during unnecessary medication investigation? - ANSWER-1. Excessive dose
- Excessive duration
- Adequate monitoring
- Indication for use
- Use in presence of adverse consequences What is a Psychotropic drug? - ANSWER-Any drug that affects brain activities associated with mental processes and behavior- include anti-psychotic, antidepressant, anti-anxiety and hypnotic medications Anticholinergic Side Effect - ANSWER-1. dry mouth
- blurred vision
- tachycardia
- urinary retention
- constipation
- confusion
- delirium
- hallucinations
- increased blood pressure What is an Extrapyramidal Symptom (EPS) - ANSWER-A neurological side effect that may occur within a few days or years of treatment with antipsychotics. Can include: akathisia, medication-induced Parkinsonism, dystonia.
What is Tardive Dyskinesia? - ANSWER-Abnormal muscle movements such as lip smacking, tongue darting, chewing movements, slow and aimless arm and leg movements. What is considered significant weight loss in 1 month - ANSWER-5% What is considered significant weight loss in 3 months - ANSWER-7.5% What is considered significant weight loss in 6 months - ANSWER-10% Signs and symptoms of Digoxin toxicity? - ANSWER-1. Anorexia
- Nausea/Vomiting
- Visual changes
- Bradycardia When is a facility required to complete a Gradual Dose Reduction (GDR)? - ANSWER-1. Within the first year in which a resident is admitted or medication is prescribed.
- Must attempt a GDR in 2 separate quarters (with at least 1 month in between) unless clinically contraindicated. What medications are reviewed in the Unnecessary Medication Review? - ANSWER-1. Insulin
- Anticoagulant
- Antipsychotics with Dementia What care areas are reviewed for non-interviewable residents? - ANSWER-1. Pressure ulcers
- Dialysis
- Infections
- Nutrition
- Falls in the last 120 days
- ADL decline
- Low risk B&B
- Unplanned hospitalization
- Elopement
- Change of condition in the last 120 days
LTC Survey Core Skills - ANSWER-1. Resident centered
- Critical thinking
- Teamwork Practicable - ANSWER-Capable regardless of circumstances or resources available to support an individual, innate ability Iatrogenesis - ANSWER-A problem that is caused by a treatment When should you export the survey shell from ACO? - ANSWER-No more than 5 business days before the survey Which residents are included in the survey shell? - ANSWER-1. Offsite selected (70% of the sample)
- Residents with at least 1 MDS in the last 120 days
- Residents for closed record review What does the Certification and Survey Provider Enhanced Reporting (CASPER) contain? - ANSWER-1.Turnover data
- Occupancy history
- Compliance history
- Demographic What items are required upon entrance to the facility? - ANSWER-1. Census excluding bed holds
- Matrix for new admits in the last 30 days
- Alphabitized list of residents
- List of residents who smoke Observations of screening residents - ANSWER-1. Resident behavior
- Staff-resident interactions
- Resident grooming and cleanliness
- Strong urinary odors
- Evidence of abuse/neglect How many complaint/FRI residents are in the inital pool? - ANSWER- 5 Types of residents required for initial pool - ANSWER-1. TBP
How many residents does the system select for Unnecessary Medication review? - ANSWER- 5 9 Mandatory Facility Tasks - ANSWER-1. Beneficiary Protection Notification (BPN) review
- Dining observation
- Infection control
- Kitchen
- Medication administration
- Medication storage
- QAA/QAPI
- Resident Council meeting
- Sufficient and Competent nurse staff What 3 tasks are assigned to all surveyors? - ANSWER-1. Dining Observation
- Infection Control
- Sufficient and Competent nurse staff Triggered Facility Tasks - ANSWER-1. Environment
- Personal Funds
- Resident Assessment What is included in a Baseline Care Plan? - ANSWER-1. Initial goals based on admission orders
- MD orders including dietary orders
- Therapy and Social Services
- PASARR What is a Pre-Admission Screening and Resident Review (PASARR)? - ANSWER-Screening to ensure that the facility coordinates with the appropriate, States designated authority, to ensure that individuals with a mental disorder, intellectual disability, or a related condition receive care and services in the most integrated setting appropriate to their needs. What pathway is used to investigate Quality of Care (QOC) concerns that have no pathway? - ANSWER-General CE Pathway Can an interviewee's identity be revealed if the facility appeals a cited deficiency and the deficiency is based on information from the interview? - ANSWER-Yes
Antibiotic Stewardship requirements - ANSWER-1. Antibiotic use protocol on prescribing
- Protocol to determine if antibiotic is indicated
- Process for review of antibiotic use by prescribers
- Protocols to ensure residents are prescribed appropriate antibiotic
- System for feedback reports Avoidable Decline - ANSWER-The facility failed to do 1 or more of the following:
- Evaluate resident clinical conditions and risk factors
- Develop and implement interventions consistent with resident needs, goals, and standards of practice
- Monitor and evaluate the impact of interventions
- Revise interventions as needed Determining Noncompliance - ANSWER-1. Specific action or lack of action relative to requirement
- The pracrice the facility failed to implement
- What the facility did or did not do to cause the noncompliance
- The actual or potential outcome that resulted from the noncompliance.
Reasonable Person Concept - ANSWER-Used when a residents psychosocial outcome may not be readily determined through the investigative process. The team should determine the severity of the psychosocial outcomes that the deficient practice would have had on a reasonable person in a similar situation. Severity Factors - ANSWER-1. Resident condition
- If staff followed P&P
- Duration of event
- Facility and staffs response to the issue
- impact to the resident What scope affects all residents in the facility, not a subset or hall. EVERYONE? - ANSWER-Widespread Substandard Quality of Care - ANSWER-1. 1 or more deficiency that poses IJ
- Pattern of, or widespread deficiency at severity level 3
- Widespread deficiency at severity level 2
- Fish
- Cut Melon
- Unpasteurized Eggs
- Cottage Cheese How should Potentially Hazardous Foods (PHF) be cooled? - ANSWER-Cool from 135 degrees to 70 degrees in 2 hours THEN 70 degrees to 41 degrees or lower within 6 hours. At what temperature should hot foods be stored at? - ANSWER- 135 degrees or higher At what temperature should cold foods be stored at? - ANSWER-41 degrees or lower At what temperature should food be reheated to? - ANSWER- 165 degrees for 15 seconds within 2 hours Medication Administration Task - ANSWER-1. Observe 25 opportunities (varity of routes) and facility has an error rate of less than 5%
- Verify residents are free from significant medication errors
- Reconcile observed medications with MD orders
- Professional standards
- Manufacturer specifications
- Verify expiration dates What is a significant medication error? - ANSWER-Medication error which causes the resident discomfort or jeopardizes health and safety What is the minimum square footage of a single room? - ANSWER-100 Square Feet Appendix Q - ANSWER-Immediate Jeopardy Severity Level 2 - ANSWER-Noncompliance that has a potential to cause MORE than minimal harm. Not an IJ TC must complete these tasks during offsite prep - ANSWER-1. Create/Export shell from ACO and Import into ASEQ
- Add team members
- Complete offsite prep in LTCSP
- Make unit assignments
- Call system
- Sound
- Room temperature
- Lighting
- Clean equipment in good repair
- Water temperature
- Bed/bath linens clean and in good condition
- Pest control
- Ventilation
- Handrails What is the minimum square footage of a multiple resident room? - ANSWER-80 square feet per resident Comfortable Room Temperature - ANSWER- 71 - 81 degrees Privacy Curtains - ANSWER-have the right to full visual privacy, curtain all the way around
Window requirements for residents rooms - ANSWER-Must have an outside window or outside door in every sleeping room, sill height must not exceed 36 inches above the floor. Requirement for bathroom facilities - ANSWER-Each resident room must have it's own bathroom equipped with a commode and sink Built after 2016 How often should a resident receive a financial statement? - ANSWER-Quarterly and upon request What amount of money must be kept in an interest bearing account? - ANSWER-$ When must a facility notify a Medicaid resident of the amount of money in their account? - ANSWER-When the account reaches $200 of the eligibility limit. When should QAPI/QAA task be completed? - ANSWER- Towards the end of the survey.
