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SLP Practice Praxis (Form 3) and SLP
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As part of a routine preschool screening, an SLP tests a 4 year old whose speech is characterized by sound omissions, hypernasality, nasal emission, and weak consonants. Which of the following would be most appropriately evaluated initially? A.Oral-motor behavior B.Velopharyngeal function C.Laryngeal function D.Phonological awareness - Correct Ans: ✔✔B Which of the following is the minimal contrast approach most appropriately used to treat? A.Phonological disorders B.Dysphagia C.Dysarthria D.Global aphasia - Correct Ans: ✔✔A Alicia is a fourth-grade student with a language impairment that interferes with her academic performance and social communication. On a standardized test of expressive language ability, she received an
overall score of 97.5, placing her in the 65th percentile. Alicia's test result indicates that she A.performed as well as or better than 65% of the individuals on whom the norms were developed B.responded correctly to 65% of the 150 items included in the expressive-language test C.performed as well as or better than 65% of the other fourth graders who took the same test D.responded correctly to 97.5% of the test items, as did 65% of the other children taking the test - Correct Ans: ✔✔A Which THREE of the following variables are considered risk factors for late language emergence? A.Male gender B.Access to print material C.Low socioeconomic status D.Moderately low birth weight E.Exposure to rich and varied vocabulary - Correct Ans: ✔✔A, C, D During a trip to the grocery store, a three-year-old boy with delayed language points to an apple on the floor and says to his mother, "Apple." The boy's mother says, "Yes, that's a big, shiny apple." Based on the mother's response, which of the following language stimulation techniques is she using?
B.Deferring the evaluation for 24 hours because the patient was just extubated to allow a possible improvement in the patient's swallow function before evaluation C.Completing a clinical bedside swallow evaluation to determine patient readiness for an instrumental ev - Correct Ans: ✔✔C, Option (C) is correct. Several studies using instrumental assessment have concluded that some patients recover airway protection and swallow function within 24 hours of extubation and others much later than 24 hours post-extubation following prolonged endotracheal intubation, suggesting that a 24-hour "deferral time" benchmark is not particularly useful. Which of the following procedures is most important for an SLP to consider when assessing the social aspect of a school-age child's communication skills? A.Collecting a language sample to assess narrative skills B.Assessing expressive vocabulary used by the child on a picture vocabulary test C.Observing the child interacting with peers in natural settings, such as during recess D.Looking for a discrepancy between the child's IQI Q and communication skills to determine eligibility - Correct Ans: ✔✔C A study is conducted to determine how well a dysphagia screening test predicts aspiration that is later confirmed with a videofluoroscopic swallow study (VFSSV F S S). The study results are presented in the table below.
(Top left) Failed Screen/Aspiration: 45 (Bottom left) Passed Screen/Aspiration: 5 (Top right) Failed Screen/No Asp: 20 (Bottom right) Passed Screen/No Asp: 30 Which THREE of the following statements about this dysphagia screening test are true? A.The screening test's sensitivity is 90% B.The screening test's sensitivity is 69% C.The screening test's specificity is 90% D.The screening test's specificity is 60% E.The number of false negatives was 5 F.The number of false negatives was 20 - Correct Ans: ✔✔A, D, E, Options (A), (D), and (E) are correct. The screening test's sensitivity is the proportion of patients who aspirated and failed the screen (top cell in the first column) to the total of all patients who aspirated on the VFSS (total of the first column); therefore, 45/50 = 0.9045 divided by 50, equals 0.90. The screening test's specificity is the proportion of patients who did not aspirate and passed the screen (bottom cell in the second column) to the total of all patients who did not aspirate on the VFSSV F S S (total of second column); therefore, 30/50 = 0.6030 divided by 50, equals 0.60. False negatives are patients who passed the screen who actually aspirated on the VFSSV F S S (bottom cell of first column).
class, the child does not engage with peers but prefers self-stimulating behaviors such as flapping arms and throwing papers up in the air. According to the child's teacher, these are typical behaviors for the child. Given the data obtained, which of the following steps is most appropriate for the SLP to take next? A.Engaging in an inter-professional practice (IPP) to determine the appropriate diagnosis of ASDA S D B.Conducting the full evaluation when the child is more cooperative so that accurate recommendations can be made C.Initiating expressive language therapy to focus on expanding conversational utterances D.Training the teacher to deliver - Correct Ans: ✔✔A Christel and Sharon are 14-month-old fraternal twins. Christel has more intelligible words than her sister, although she talks far less frequently. Sharon speaks almost exclusively in running jargon that nobody understands. Their parents are worried about Sharon's development because her language skills appear to be behind those of her sister. Which of the following is an SLP's best response to the parents' concern? A.At Sharon's age, jargon is normal and may even continue for another three to four months. B.Christel's language development is more abnormal because she should be beyond single words. C.Both girls were exposed to the same language environments, so the relative lack of intelligible words indicates a language delay.
D.Jargon should not persist past the age of 12 months and thus Sharon may be presenting a language disorder. - Correct Ans: ✔✔A An SLP engages in inter-professional practice in a large health care center and works with a neurologic rehabilitation team to treat a patient who is status post left-hemisphere stroke. The SLP's primary focus on the team is to A.lead the interdisciplinary team to improve patient care B.reduce costs and the number of professionals working at the site C.obtain licenses in multiple areas of practice to engage in a range of services D.improve the patient experience and outcome of care at the site - Correct Ans: ✔✔D Which of the following communication diagnoses would most likely require a treatment program that is focused on improving auditory language comprehension? A.Right-hemisphere communication impairment B.Global aphasia C.Wernicke's aphasia D.Broca's aphasia - Correct Ans: ✔✔C, Option (C) is correct. The hallmark of Wernicke's aphasia is deficits in auditory comprehension, because the site of lesions is most typically the left superior temporal gyrus.
Which of the following conditions is primarily associated with a short lingual frenulum, heart-shaped tongue tip, and a failure to elevate the tongue tip beyond the mandibular incisors, as revealed during oral- facial examination? A.Bulbar palsy B.Ankyloglossia C.Glossoptosis D.Congenital lip pits - Correct Ans: ✔✔B A school district does not use a standard therapy log for SLP services. An SLP who works for the district develops a form to document therapy services provided. Which THREE of the following are key to include on the form to document the provision of speech and language IEP services? A.The date a student's IEP was established B.Student performance during the therapy session C.Names of other students in the group D.Types of services provided within a therapy session E.Signature from the SLP verifying delivery of services - Correct Ans: ✔✔B, D, E, Options (B), (D), and (E) are correct. Information on student performance is important data and helps to track progress, listing the types of services indicates what was provided, and the SLP'sS L P's signature documents who provided the service.
Which of the following activities is an example of a metalinguistic strategy used to assist a student with language difficulties? A.Providing a definition of a word B.Placing story elements in sequential order C.Editing the writing of same-aged peers D.Discussing similarities and differences between two pictures - Correct Ans: ✔✔C Option (C) is correct. Editing the writing of a same- age peer is an example of a metalinguistic activity because it involves the awareness, analysis, and control of language form, content, and use. A 24-year-old male self-refers for a fluency evaluation. His presenting complaint is stuttering. During conversation at the initial assessment, he speaks intelligibly at a typical rate and produces no overt stutter-like disfluencies. He reports that he often expects to stutter while conversing, but that he usually can prevent or conceal the occurrence of the expected fluency disruptions either by substituting a word or by inserting a pause or "um" before the word upon which he expects to be disfluent. He states that these strategies are useful and that he would like to be able to "talk without thinking about talking." He reports that he attended speech therapy from elementary school through high school and that it helped him reduce disfluency significantly during therapy activities, but his disfluency frequency did not change much during activities outside of therapy. He fears that coworkers will react negatively to - Correct Ans: ✔✔C, Option (C) is correct. Some people who stutter can prevent anticipated instances of stutter-like disfluency either by substituting words or by delaying the start of a word upon which stuttering is anticipated, e.g., by pausing or by interjecting fillers
of the expected fluency disruptions either by substituting a word or by inserting a pause or "um" before the word upon which he expects to be disfluent. He states that these strategies are useful and that he would like to be able to "talk without thinking about talking." He reports that he attended speech therapy from elementary school through high school and that it helped him reduce disfluency significantly during therapy activities, but his disfluency frequency did not change much during activities outside of therapy. He fears that coworkers will react negatively to - Correct Ans: ✔✔A Option (A) is correct. Research supports the idea that Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBTC B T) can change the communication-related attitudes of people who stutter. Which of the following nerves provides efferent innervation to the stylopharyngeus muscle and contributes toward the elevation of the pharynx and the larynx? A.The trigeminal B.The hypoglossal C.The vagus D.The glossopharyngeal - Correct Ans: ✔✔D Option (D) is correct. The functions described are controlled by cranial nerve IX9, the glossopharyngeal. A patient presents to a speech-language pathologist with voice changes. After completing a patient assessment, the SLP notes that the patient's vocal quality and function indicate the possibility of a superior laryngeal nerve injury. Which of the following presentations is most consistent with this impression?
A.Inspiratory stridor B.Hypernasal resonance C.Complete aphonia D.Reduced pitch range - Correct Ans: ✔✔D Option (D) is correct. The superior laryngeal nerve controls the cricoarytenoid muscles, which lengthen the vocal folds for pitch elevation. Injury to this nerve can result in reduced pitch range, particularly in the higher frequency range. Kimberly, a patient who suffered a brain stem stroke and has had a fairly successful recovery, complained of food sticking in her throat and needing to swallow two to three times to clear liquid and solid boluses. She underwent a videofluoroscopic swallowing study that showed a limited duration of upper esophageal sphincter opening. The SLP decides to employ an intervention plan that includes the Mendelsohn maneuver. Which of the following strategies is most likely to be effective in accomplishing this goal? A.Completing a fiberoptic endoscopic evaluation of swallowing (FEES) to determine if the patient is performing the maneuver properly B.Performing cervical auscultation (CA) to quantify improved swallowing with the maneuver C.Using submental surface electromyography (sEMGs) as biofeedback during attempts to perform the maneuver D.Teaching the patient to use palpation of her neck and a mirror to help her master the - Correct Ans: ✔✔C Option (C) is correct. Submental surface EMGE M G has been shown to improve acquisition of the
C.Laryngeal airway resistance D.Perceptual judgment - Correct Ans: ✔✔B According to literature on men's and women's voices, the prevalence of benign vocal fold lesions in women can best be explained by differences in A.daily dairy consumption B.speaking duration C.rates of vocal fold vibration D.neck circumference - Correct Ans: ✔✔C A child has been demonstrating significant progress in producing the targeted responses in the therapy room; however, observation in the classroom indicates little mastery of the targeted responses. Which of the following would be the most appropriate revision to the treatment plan? A.Delivering treatment in the classroom B.Increasing the frequency of treatment in the therapy room C.Increasing the duration of treatment in the therapy room D.Changing the IEP goals - Correct Ans: ✔✔A During videofluoroscopic evaluation of an adult patient, the SLP notices material in both pyriform sinuses after the patient swallows. Upon review, the SLP sees that both pyriform sinuses clear during the
pharyngeal swallow but then refill quickly as the structures return to rest. Which of the following statements best explains this observation? A.Pharyngeal stripping was not adequate to fully clear the pyriform sinuses, so there was material in the pyriform sinuses after each swallow. B.The patient had small pharyngeal pouches (pharyngoceles) that filled with barium during the swallow and then emptied into the pyriform sinuses after each swallow. C.Hyolaryngeal elevation was not sufficient, leaving material in the pyriform sinuses after each swallow. D.The patient had a tracheoesophageal fistula, and contrast was deposited in the pyriform sinuses after each swallow. - Correct Ans: ✔✔B Option (B) is correct. Pharyngoceles emptying into the sinuses after each swallow could be diagnosed by analyzing slow-motion videofluoroscopic images. A child with developmental apraxia of speech is not making progress in a school setting. The parents wish to schedule additional therapy. An SLP in a local clinic evaluates and determines that a more individualized treatment plan is warranted. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the SLP at the local clinic to take to ensure the child receives necessary treatment? A.Recommending the parents stop school treatment given the lack of progress B.Contacting the child's school SLP to coordinate treatment plans C.Encouraging private SLP treatment using a smaller group setting
changes or coughing. Select the THREE most important factors for the SLP to explore during the patient interview. A.Difficulties with hearing, vision, and fine or gross motor skills B.History of a psychological or psychiatric disorder C.Employment history and current stressors in her life D.Onset and duration of her speech changes E.Consistency of the symptoms - Correct Ans: ✔✔A, D, E Options (A), (D), and (E) are correct. This patient scenario is strongly suggestive of a late-onset or acquired neurological disorder based on the combination of speech changes across multiple subsystems and swallowing problems. In this case, the most important information for the SLPS L P to obtain includes whether changes in other motor skills and vision and hearing accompany the changes in the duration, onset, course, and consistency of the changes in swallowing, voice, and resonance. This would help the SLPS L P determine the most important procedures to include in the evaluation and referrals regarding the etiology of the symptoms. Which of the following statements best explains why thickened liquids for adult patients with dysphagia should be used with caution? A.Patients dislike thickened liquids and therefore do not drink enough, resulting in dehydration. B.The thickened liquid becomes thinner as it sits at the bedside, negating the liquid's benefit as a compensatory diet modification. C.Patients need twice as much thickened liquid because it provides half the hydration that thin liquid provides.
D.Thickened liquids are aspirated more frequently than thin liquids. - Correct Ans: ✔✔A According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5™) criteria for autism spectrum disorder (ASD) and social communication disorder (SCD), which of the following characteristics best helps an SLPS L P provide a differential diagnosis for ASD instead of SCD? A.Deficits in communication appropriate for a social context B.Deficits that result in functional limitations in social participation C.Difficulty following rules for storytelling D.Repetitive and restrictive patterns of behavior - Correct Ans: ✔✔D An aphasia evaluation of a 68-year-old retired woman reveals utterances of one to two words, no apraxia of speech, and relatively good comprehension. When the patient makes production errors, they are typically semantic errors and she attempts to correct them, often with success. Her goal is to use more words to convey ideas using complete sentences. She is active and wants to communicate in various settings, such as at her volunteer job, with her family, and when traveling. Which of the following treatments best prioritizes the patient's language needs and personal goals? A.Providing a script for the patient to recite that allows her to tell people about her stroke B.Starting Verb Network Strengthening Treatment (VNeST) to increase word retrieval in untrained discourse
