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SLP ETS Practice Test Form 1 exam
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- Which of the following should be the primary focus of early language intervention for at-risk infants? A. Establishing object permanence through play activities B. Training primary caregivers to facilitate language learning C. Creating readiness activities in the context of play D. Enhancing social communication through play activities: Option (B) is cor- rect. Early language stimulation in at-risk infants is best provided by primary care- givers who have been trained in practices that promote learning.
- The figure above shows the oral, pharyngeal, and esophageal structures involved in swallowing. Which of the following best describes the transit of the bolus at the moment depicted in the figure? A. The bolus is traveling through the esophagus. B. The bolus is being propelled from the oral cavity by the tongue and has entered the pharynx. C. The bolus has passively exited the oral cavity without propulsion by the tongue. D. Laryngeal penetration of some of the bolus is evident.: Option (B) is correct. The tongue is in contact with the entire anterior and most of the mid to posterior hard palate. Furthermore, the bolus head has passed the epiglottis and is descending into the hypopharynx.
- Primary motor innervation to the larynx and velum is provided by which cranial nerve?
A.V
B.VI
I
C.IX
D. X: Option (D) is correct. Primary innervation to the larynx and velum is provided by cranial nerve X, the vagus nerve. The other answer choices identify cranial nerves that are not primarily involved in motor innervation to the larynx and velum.
- Fela is a third-grade student in a public school. She is a speaker of African American Vernacular English (AAVE) who has difficulty with the Standard American English (SAE) dialect used in her classroom. Her teacher believes that Fela's language skills are affecting her academic performance and has referred her to the school's speech-language pathologist. Which of the follow- ing is an appropriate rationale for providing language intervention for Fela? Select all that apply. A. It will likely foster better communication with Fela's linguistically and cul- turally diverse peers. B. It will likely improve Fela's code-switching ability with her teacher and other adult speakers of SAE. C. It may expand Fela's later academic and vocational opportunities. D. It will likely lead Fela to adopt SAE as her primary dialect.: Options (A), (B), and (C) are correct. The intervention will foster better communication because Fela and her peers will have a common dialect. Also, the intervention will provide Fela with the ability to switch easily between dialects using SAE structures. Furthermore, being able to switch codes will enable Fela to participate in more educational and vocational opportunities.
- Federal laws regarding freedom of access to information stipulate that client records kept or written by health care professionals can be A. reviewed only by other health-care professionals B. reviewed only by the clients themselves unless the client provides written permission to share with others
content (the denotative message) and the affect (the emotional content) of a client's remarks.
- This investigation was motivated by observations that when persons with dysarthria increase loudness, their speech improves. Some studies have indicated that this improvement may be related to an increase of prosodic variation. Studies have reported an increase of fundamental frequency (F0) variation with increased loudness, but there has been no examination of the relation of loudness manipulation to specific prosodic variables that are known to aid a listener in parsing out meaningful information. This study examined the relation of vocal loudness production to selected acoustic variables known to inform listeners of phrase and sentence boundaries: specifically, F0 declination and final-word lengthening. Ten young, healthy women were audio-recorded while they read aloud a paragraph at what each considered normal loudness, twice-normal loudness, and half-normal loud- ness. Results showed that there was a statistically significant increase of F0 declination, brought about by a higher resetting of F0 at the beginning of a sentence and an increase of final-word lengthening from the half- normal loudness condition to the twice-normal loudness condition. These results suggest that when some persons with dysarthria increase loudness, variables related to prosody may change, which in turn contributes to improvement in communicative effectiveness. However, until this procedure is tested with individuals who have dysarthria, it is uncertain whether a similar effect would be observed. Which of the following represent(s) the independent variable or variables used in the Watson and Hughes study? A. Prosody of dysarthric speech B. F0 declination and final-word lengthening C. Vocal loudness D. Speech intelligibility and communicative effectiveness: Option (C) is
correct. The researchers manipulated vocal loudness to determine its effect on prosodic F0 and durational variables.
- This investigation was motivated by observations that when persons with dysarthria increase loudness, their speech improves. Some studies have indicated that this improvement may be related to an increase of prosodic variation. Studies have reported an increase of fundamental frequency (F0) variation with increased loudness, but there has been no examination of the relation of loudness manipulation to specific prosodic variables that are known to aid a listener in parsing out meaningful information. This study examined the relation of vocal loudness production to selected acoustic variables known to inform listeners of phrase and sentence boundaries: specifically, F0 declination and final-word lengthening. Ten young, healthy women were audio-recorded while they read aloud a paragraph at what each considered normal loudness, twice-normal loudness, and half-normal loud- ness. Results showed that there was a statistically significant increase of F0 declination, brought about by a higher resetting of F0 at the beginning of a sentence and an increase of final-word lengthening from the half- normal loudness condition to the twice-normal loudness condition. These results suggest that when some persons with dysarthria increase loudness, variables related to prosody may change, which in turn contributes to improvement in communicative effectiveness. However, until this procedure is tested with individuals who have dysarthria, it is uncertain whether a similar effect would be observed. Watson and Hughes are cautious when suggesting that the speech of some persons with dysarthria improves because of the prosodic changes that result from increasing vocal loudness. Of the following, which is the most likely reason for this caution? A. Only women were studied. B. The prosody of persons with dysarthria may not show similar
manipulation to prosodic F0 and durational variables in healthy adults. Jour- nal of Speech, Language, and Hearing Research, 49, 636-644. Which of the following best describes the experimental design of the Watson and Hughes study? A.A multiple-baseline design B.A between-subjects design C.A within-subjects design D.A mixed between- and within-subjects design: Option (C) is correct. The researchers use the same group of subjects who recite a paragraph under three conditions: at normal, twice-normal, and half-normal loudness. This is an example of a within-subjects design, in which the dependent variables (in this case, prosodic F0 and durational variables) are measured repeatedly in the same subjects under different task conditions (in this case, vocal loudness).
- A 55-year-old woman, recently hospitalized for probable cerebrovascular accident (CVA), is referred for evaluation of stuttering speech. The initial conversation with the client indicates that speech is characterized by frequent initial-phoneme repetitions and prolongations as well as associated mildly effortful eye blinking. Which of the following pieces of information is crucial to accurate speech diagnosis and decisions regarding management of the speech problem? A. The site and extent of the lesion associated with the suspected CVA B. Whether the client has any associated dysphagia or dysphonia C. Whether the dysfluencies began before or after the suspected CVA D. Whether the client feels frustrated by the dysfluencies: Option (C) is correct. Dysfluent speech may or may not be directly caused by the patient's suspected CVA.
- Which of the following is the best action to take initially with a client who presents with poor oral control of liquids and solids, coughing and choking while eating and drinking, and a history of hospitalizations associated with pneumonia?
A. Thickening liquids so that the client will be better able to control oral movements for swallowing B. Obtaining a modified barium-swallow study to determine appropriate inter- ventions C. Evaluating the client's ability to eat a variety of foods in order to determine which foods are safest D. Prescribing that the client be NPO, since aspiration is present: Option (B) is correct. An assessment of the problem must be undertaken before treatment is provided, and the best way to do this is to obtain a modified barium-swallow study.
- A number of research reports have described poor auditory memory in children with language impairments. Which of the following can most appro- priately be concluded from these studies? A. Poor auditory memory can be improved by language-intervention programs that focus on teaching vocabulary and word meanings. B. Poor auditory memory is a reflection of a language impairment, and clini- cians and researchers cannot effect improvement. C. Poor auditory memory could be a reflection or a cause of a language impairment or could be related to some other factor, and further research is needed to determine which is the case. D. Children with language impairments normally do not have well- developed representational skills.: Option (C) is correct. Research reports are restricted to the variables examined in the studies on which they are based. A relationship between poor auditory memory and language impairment has been found in some research studies. Other factors could be involved, however, suggesting that further research is needed. Conclusions about treatment or the effects of the impairment must be made through additional research studies.
- Ms. Brown, a 70-year-old retired female, was admitted to the hospital following a CVA. The SLP conducted a comprehensive evaluation that revealed the presence of left-side neglect, anosognosia (denial of impairment), and vi- suospatial problems, including prosopagnosia
A. Development of cognitive skills B.Development of social skills C.Parent-mediated auditory stimulation D.Gestural stimulation: Option (C) is correct. For an infant known to have a hearing loss, parents are in the best position to provide consistent auditory stimulation, which the infant needs in order to develop an awareness of sound.
- A child exhibits the following production errors. w/r /¸s t/ƒ t/t ƒ z/d ’ t/k d/ g If a target sound for initial intervention is to be selected on the basis of established developmental norms, then that sound will be A./ s/ B.// ƒ C./k / D./t/ƒ: Option (C) is correct. According to developmental norms, /k/ is the target phoneme that should be selected for intervention.
- A public-school-based speech-language pathologist is employed in a state that sets the maximum caseload at 65. However, the clinician's caseload
is currently at 64 with a waiting list of 10 additional students. The school principal insists that the speech-language pathologist enroll the 10 students immediately, because the district cannot locate another clinician to assist with the caseload. Which of the following is the most appropriate way for the speech-language pathologist to address the situation? A. Enroll 1 of the 10 students and provide the principal with a written statement of caseload needs, mentioning the amount, type, and frequency of treatment B.Refer the 10 students to a speech-language pathologist working in a private setting C. Suggest that the principal ask a school speech-language pathologist from another school district to take the 10 students D. Maintain current caseload until an additional speech-language pathologist is hired: Option (A) is correct. It provides the principal with a statement detailing the needs of the students awaiting treatment but also observes the state's caseload limit.
- Fiber-optic instrumentation is appropriate for evaluation of which of the following types of disorders? A. Articulation B.Phonation C.Proprioceptio n D.Respiration: Option (B) is correct. Fiber-optic nasopharyngoscopy or laryn- goscopy is a commonly used approach to evaluate vocal fold anatomy and phys- iology for voice production (phonation).
- Which of the following views make up a standard videofluoroscopic swal- low study? Select all that apply. A. Frontal B.Lateral
that are morphologically and syntactically well formed.
- A 5-year-old girl with a repaired cleft palate has recently undergone a pharyngeal flap operation to correct velopharyngeal incompetence, but she continues to use glottal stops, pharyngeal fricatives, and mid- dorsum palatal stops. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the SLP to take? A. Recommending that the child be examined by a cleft palate team to deter- mine the cause of the persistent articular errors B. Referring the child back to the surgeon to determine the need for a revision of the pharyngeal flap C. Initiating articulation treatment to teach the correct placement for the stops and fricatives D. Initiating articulation treatment to teach correct production of nonpressure consonant sounds: Option (C) is correct. This child is using compensatory glottal stops, mid-dorsum palatal stops, and pharyngeal fricatives for standard Ameri- can English stops and fricatives. She has had surgical management to correct velopharyngeal incompetence. She now needs to learn to produce the stops and fricatives for which she is making compensations. Therefore, articulation treatment is appropriate.
- The major objective of auditory training in the treatment of a client with a hearing loss is to A. improve the client's awareness of position and movements of the speech mechanism B. improve the client's kinesthetic and auditory awareness C. increase the client's kinesthetic and proprioceptive discrimination D. teach the client to make discriminations among speech sounds: Option (D) is correct. Auditory training focuses on the interpretation of auditory input and would thus teach a client to discriminate speech sounds.
- A 70-year-old female has dysphagia characterized by poor posterior oral containment of the bolus during the oral preparatory stage, causing aspiration before the swallow. Cognition and the pharyngeal stage of the swallow are intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment approach for the client?
A. Providing a puree diet with thickened liquids B. Having the client flex her head forward (perform the chin-down posture) during oral preparation and transit stages of the swallow C. Having the client turn (rotate) her head to the right when swallowing D.Providing a diet that consists of thin liquids: Option (B) is correct. This treat- ment alters oral configuration to place the base of the tongue superior to the bolus inside the oral cavity. Since liquid cannot flow uphill against gravity, this intervention compensates for impaired palatoglossus contraction, which is causing impaired posterior oral containment.
- An SLP receives a referral regarding a 4-year-old boy who uses two words spontaneously and functionally, who began walking at 3 years of age, and who responds to his name inconsistently. On the basis of the information alone, the SLP can legitimately conclude that the child's communication profile reflects A.a developmental delay B.autism spectrum disorder C.a chromosomal anomaly D.a metabolic disorder: Option (A) is correct. A 4-year-old typically developing child would have 4 word utterances and would respond to his name consistently. Most children start to walk around age 1. Therefore, the delay in walking, along with the delay in language, indicates a general developmental delay.
- Successful use of an alternative and augmentative communication system is based on such factors as selecting appropriate vocabulary, seating and po- sitioning, and having a reliable method of controlling the system. To facilitate the most effective use of the system, clinicians most often advocate which of the following approaches? A. Unimodal B.Multimod al C.Bimodal D.Gestural: Option (B) is correct. A multimodal approach offers more communica- tive options than any other of the approaches listed.
skills C.syntactic skills D.articulation skills: Option (B) is correct. The cognitive skills of a child at the one-word stage will most strongly influence the child's speech-language responses, so language intervention for the child should take into account the child's cognitive skills.
- A single exposure of several hours duration to continuous music with an overall level of 100 dB SPL will most likely produce A. tinnitus and a temporary threshold shift in high frequencies B. tinnitus and a distortion of speech perception C. a temporary threshold shift in the low frequencies D. a permanent threshold shift: Option (A) is correct. A single exposure of several hours duration to continuous music at a level of about 100 dB SPL will most likely produce tinnitus and a temporary threshold shift in the high frequencies.
- According to research on the development of Brown's morphemes in young children, which of the following is a determinant of acquisition order? A. Phonological ease of production B.Figurative-language ability C.Semantic and syntactic complexity D.Sequencing and segmentation strategies: Option (C) is correct. Brown's mor- phemes are acquired by children in an order that is determined by semantic and syntactic complexity, with the simplest forms acquired first. The order of acquisition is typically followed by all children.
- John is a 4 1/2 year old whose consonantal inventory includes word- initial [ w ], [ m ], [ n ], [ p ], [ b ], [ t ], [ d ], and [ f ]. He uses [ t ] for /k/, [ d ] for //a, [ b ] for /v/, and [ f ] for //¸. He produces no consonant clusters. His word-final consonantal inventory consists of [m] and [n]. His word shape inventory includes V, CV, CVC, and CVCV. The information given most strongly indicates that the child has
A. childhood apraxia of speech B. an oral motor impairment C. delayed phonological development D. a significant high-frequency hearing loss: Option (C) is correct. The pattern describes the phonological pattern of a younger child. The errors are consistent, un- like childhood apraxia of speech, which has an inconsistent error pattern. Children at this age typically have mastered consonant clusters and use word- final consonants.
- After sustaining a CVA, Ms. Williams, age 75, was referred to an SLP for a speech and language evaluation. While Ms. Williams was describing the cookie-theft picture, the SLP observed that her grammatical structure appeared to be intact and her prosody was normal but that many of her sentences were meaningless, did not fit the context, and included nonsensical paraphasic errors. Additional testing also revealed that Ms. Williams exhibited poor repetition and naming skills, did not respond appropriately to many simple commands, and had difficulty reading. Ms. Williams appeared happy and talked excessively. She did not appear to be aware of her communication deficits. What is the most likely location of the lesion? A. Left posterior superior temporal gyrus B. Left inferior frontal gyrus C. Left superior frontal gyrus D. Left inferior parietal gyrus: Option (A) is correct. The symptoms that are de- scribed in the scenario are consistent with damage to the left posterior superior temporal gyrus.
- Before an SLP initiates voice intervention, it is most important that the SLP gather information about the A. cause of the client's voice problem B. client's breathing patterns C. client's oral motor skills D. fundamental frequency of the client's laryngeal tone: Option (A) is
client is likely to respond to treatment.: Option (C) is correct. The use of standardized normative instruments enables a clinician to compare a client's language and speech function with the average normal function for a person in the client's age range.
- An SLP who is treating an adolescent who stutters designs a treatment plan that includes three fluency management strategies: prolonged speech, cancellation, and pullout. Which of the following is true about the use of these treatment strategies? Select all that apply. A. Use of prolonged speech is likely to reduce the frequency of part- word repetitions and sound prolongations significantly. B. Each of the three strategies entails deliberate regulation of speech motor movements. C. The client will seek to apply cancellation whenever he feels anxious about the possibility of stuttering overtly. D. The client will seek to apply pullout during the course of part-word repetition or sound prolongation.: Options (A), (B), and (D) are correct. Prolonged speech, deliberate regulation of speech motor movements, and pullout could all be appro- priately applied.
- A client with anomic aphasia is a native speaker of Spanish with fair proficiency in English. Production of the word "shoes" as [tƒuz] on a repetition task is most likely due to which of the following factors? A. Phonological interference from the speaker's native language B. Semantic interference from the speaker's native language C. Semantic paraphasia due to the aphasia D. Phonemic paraphasia due to the aphasia: Option (A) is correct. The Spanish language does not have /f/ in its phonemic inventory, and native speakers of Spanish typically substitute the affricate /t+/ /
t
/ when producing English words with that phoneme. A native speaker of Spanish would most likely have made the substitution before acquiring an anomic aphasia.
- An SLP has a consultation with a self-referred adult who has a fluency disorder. The client had been enrolled in treatment programs with the clinician three times before and had reached from 75 to 90 percent fluency before dropping out of treatment for various reasons. Thirty percent of the client's syllables are spoken disfluently. The client also exhibits signs of depression and anxiety. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the SLP to take? A. Encouraging the client to re-enroll for remedial services B.Encouraging the client to take responsibility for maintaining fluency by using techniques learned in the previous treatment sessions C.Recommending that the client schedule a neurological evaluation D.Referring the client for psychological counseling: Option (D) is correct. Psy- chological counseling is most appropriate for a client who appears interested in improving speech but has not remained motivated long enough to complete the several treatment programs started. The client also does not exhibit maintenance of benefits from prior treatment. Thus, psychological counseling should precede any further remedial efforts.
- Immediately following removal of a benign tumor from the base of the brain, a 76-year-old client exhibits severe nasalization and a weak, breathy voice. A four-month postsurgical assessment reveals no improvement. At this time, the remediation strategy for this client should focus on A. evaluation for prosthetic or surgical intervention B.strengthening exercises for the oral articulators
