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SCI 225 Patho (Week 16) - Final Assessment Review - Nightingale 2025, Exams of Pathophysiology

SCI 225 Patho (Week 16) - Final Assessment Review - Nightingale 2025vSCI 225 Patho (Week 16) - Final Assessment Review - Nightingale 2025SCI 225 Patho (Week 16) - Final Assessment Review - Nightingale 2025

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2024/2025

Available from 06/09/2025

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SCI 225 Week 16 Final Assessment Review
2025
If a patient with diabetes has advanced glycosylation end products (AGEs), what does
the nurse suspect is happening in the patient's body?
Increased ketone formation
AGEs cause tissue injury through a variety of mechanisms, including the production of free
radicals and the induction of microvascular/macrovascular disease. AGEs do not affect ketone
formation.
Tissue/cellular injury
Dawn phenomenon
Reduction of chronic complications
Which information should the nurse include in a lecture on syndrome of inappropriate
antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)? SIADH results in excessive:
renal retention of sodium and water.
renal excretion of sodium without water retention.
renal retention of water without sodium retention.
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SCI 225 Week 1 6 Final Assessment Review

If a patient with diabetes has advanced glycosylation end products (AGEs), what does the nurse suspect is happening in the patient's body? Increased ketone formation AGEs cause tissue injury through a variety of mechanisms, including the production of free radicals and the induction of microvascular/macrovascular disease. AGEs do not affect ketone formation. Tissue/cellular injury Dawn phenomenon Reduction of chronic complications Which information should the nurse include in a lecture on syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)? SIADH results in excessive: renal retention of sodium and water. renal excretion of sodium without water retention. renal retention of water without sodium retention.

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Elevated ADH secretion in SIADH stimulates increased water reabsorption in the distal and collecting tubules. renal excretion of water without sodium retention. A patient has thyroid carcinoma. Which of the following will the nurse find on assessment? Small thyroid nodule Thyroid carcinoma usually presents with small thyroid nodules. Elevated T3 and T Large, diffuse goiter Thyroid gland atrophy A patient with Graves disease has subcutaneous swelling of the anterior leg. Which term should the nurse document on the chart? Papilledema Papilledema is swelling of the optic disc in the eye. A patient with Graves disease will develop infiltration of subcutaneous tissues of the anterior lower leg, resulting in a "doughy" edema called pretibial myxedema. Pretibial myxedema Diplopia Acropachy

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Measuring urine output Evaluating fasting plasma glucose levels Diabetes can be diagnosed by abnormal blood glucose levels either randomly, fasting, glycosylated, or post glucose load. Performing a battery of genetic tests The presence of symptoms is the only definitive method. Which of the following statements indicates that the nurse needs more teaching? Hyperglycemia can lead to chronic complications of diabetes through: activation of protein kinase C. induction of the polyol pathway. Induction of the polyol pathway increases intracellular osmotic pressure, causing cellular edema and tissue dysfunction. However, hyperglycemia can also activate protein kinase C and glycosylation. glycosylation. suppression of oxidative stress. Graves disease is an example of a: type I hypersensitivity.

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type II hypersensitivity. type III hypersensitivity.

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hypochromic cell. Which laboratory result will be elevated in a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? Platelets Fibrin degradation products In DIC, a sign of fibrinolysis and clot breakdown is the presence of fibrin degradation products. Clotting factors Activated protein C A nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which laboratory test should the nurse ask the primary care provider to order? Urinalysis D-dimer Arterial blood gases Detection of D-dimers is a widely used test for DIC.

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Potassium A patient has heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Which condition is a priority to assess? Pulmonary infarction Pulmonary hypertension Pulmonary edema Pulmonary embolism Venous thrombosis is more common and results in deep venous thrombosis and pulmonary emboli. A patient has non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (NHL). When the nurse is reviewing the history, which finding is a risk factor for NHL? Appendectomy 1 year ago Bacterial infection Heart disease Organ transplant 2 years ago

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Liver A patient has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which laboratory report should the nurse monitor closely in this patient? Sodium levels Urine analysis Lymphocyte counts Lymphocytopenia is a major problem in acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Schilling test A patient has a "shift to the left" or "left shift." Which other term can the nurse use to describe this finding? Burkitt lymphoma Disseminated intravascular coagulation Anemia Leukemoid reaction Premature release of the immature cells is responsible for the phenomenon known as "a shift to the left" or leukemoid reaction.

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If a patient has secondary hypertension, the nurse realizes that the patient has an abnormal blood pressure caused by: elevated levels of LDL. high sodium intake. genetics. an underlying disease. Secondary hypertension is caused by an underlying disease process or medication that raises peripheral vascular resistance or cardiac output. A patient has atherosclerosis. Which factor associated with endothelial injury will the nurse observe written in the history? Anemia Autoimmunity Autoimmune factors, infectious microorganisms, and smoking are among the possible causes of endothelial injury. BP 110/ Nonsmoker

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The nurse recalls risk factors that are associated with atherosclerosis. These include primary hypertension and: a high-sodium diet. advanced age. Older adults are more likely than younger individuals to develop atherosclerosis and primary hypertension. hyperhomocysteinemia. a low-potassium diet. When conducting a physical assessment of a patient during an acute asthma episode, the nurse would expect to observe: paralysis of accessory breathing muscles. bradypnea. pulsus paradoxus. During an acute asthma episode, pulsus paradoxus may be noted. eupnea.

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A patient asks the nurse what is most closely associated with the development of lung cancer? How should the nurse respond? Excessive alcohol drinking Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease Cigarette smoking The most common cause of lung cancer is tobacco smoking. Endocrine disorders A patient has pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and hemoptysis. The primary care provider suspects a pulmonary embolus. Which laboratory test should the nurse check to help confirm this diagnosis? D-dimer levels The diagnosis is made by measuring elevated levels of D-dimer in the blood in combination with scanning using spiral computed tomography (CT). Red blood cell count Potassium levels IgE count Underlying the pathophysiology of ARDS is massive pulmonary:

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A patient with HIV has painful burning dysesthesias and paresthesias, especially in the extremities. What condition will the nurse see documented in the chart? CNS neoplasms HIV neuropathy Painful, burning dysesthesias and paresthesias, typically in the extremities, are present in individuals with HIV neuropathy. HIV-associated dementia/cognitive disorders Opportunistic infections A patient has a recent spinal cord injury. Which term should the nurse use to describe the loss of reflex function below the level of injury/lesion? Autonomic hyperreflexia Spinal shock In spinal shock, reflex function is completely lost in all segments below the lesion. Degenerative disk disease Low back pain

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A patient with a spinal cord injury (T6 level) reports a headache. The patient's blood pressure is 296 systolic, and the patient is sweating. Which intervention is most appropriate? Prepare the patient for surgery. Administer pain medication for headache. Start CPR. Check the patient's bladder. The most common cause is a distended bladder or rectum, but any sensory stimulation can elicit autonomic hyperreflexia. Which of the following may cause an attack or an exacerbation of symptoms for a patient with multiple sclerosis? Cool environment Administration of corticosteroids Increased calcium levels Conditions that cause short-lived attacks include minor increases in body temperature or serum calcium (Ca++) concentration. Decreased stress levels

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A patient has dysmenorrhea and the primary care provider prescribes a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication. When should the nurse advise the patient to take this drug? At or before the onset of menses Management of dysmenorrhea is usually successful with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (which block prostaglandin production), but these medications must be started at, or even before, the onset of menses. At or after the onset of menses On the last day of menses During the middle of menses Benign ovarian cysts are classified as: subserous, submucous, or intramural. follicular, corpus luteum/luteal, or dermoid. Benign ovarian cysts are classified as follicular, corpus luteum/luteal, and dermoid. hyperplastic, atrophic, or functional. stage I, II, III or IV. The most important risk factor in the development of prostate cancer is:

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older age. By age 85, 1 in 6 American men will develop prostate cancer and about 3% will die from it. smoking. low-fat diet. urethral stricture. A patient has a cystocele. What other condition should the nurse assess for in this patient? Stress incontinence A cystocele occurs when the bladder descends into the anterior aspect of the vaginal canal and usually results in bladder control problems such as stress incontinence. Significant problems defecating The descent of the rectum into the vaginal canal Infertility A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of duodenal ulcers. Which information should the nurse include?