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SBB ACTUAL FINAL EXAM UPDATED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS UPDATED A+ GRADED, Exams of Nursing

SBB ACTUAL FINAL EXAM UPDATED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS UPDATED A+ GRADED

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 07/06/2025

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SBB ACTUAL FINAL EXAM UPDATED
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS UPDATED A+
GRADED
Band 3 CORRECT ANSWER>>>>macrocomplex of proteins including:
-Rh
-RhAG
-LW (ICAM-4)
-GPA
-GPB
-CD47
ATP source for RBCs CORRECT ANSWER>>>>90% from Glycolysis (Embden-Meyerhoff
pathway)
10% from pentose phosphate pathway
Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway CORRECT ANSWER>>>>necessary to maintain
heme iron in ferrous (Fe2+) state
Deficiency causes accumulation of methemoglobin, nonfunctional from of Hgb
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17
pf18
pf19
pf1a
pf1b
pf1c
pf1d
pf1e
pf1f
pf20
pf21
pf22
pf23
pf24
pf25
pf26
pf27
pf28
pf29
pf2a
pf2b
pf2c
pf2d
pf2e
pf2f
pf30
pf31
pf32
pf33
pf34
pf35
pf36
pf37
pf38

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Download SBB ACTUAL FINAL EXAM UPDATED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS UPDATED A+ GRADED and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

SBB ACTUAL FINAL EXAM UPDATED

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS UPDATED A+

GRADED

Band 3 CORRECT ANSWER>>>> macrocomplex of proteins including:

  • Rh
  • RhAG
  • LW (ICAM-4)
  • GPA
  • GPB
  • CD ATP source for RBCs CORRECT ANSWER>>>> 90% from Glycolysis (Embden-Meyerhoff pathway) 10% from pentose phosphate pathway Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway CORRECT ANSWER>>>> necessary to maintain heme iron in ferrous (Fe2+) state Deficiency causes accumulation of methemoglobin, nonfunctional from of Hgb

Leubering Rapaport Shunt CORRECT ANSWER>>>> permits accumulation of 2,3-DPG "Tense form" of Hgb CORRECT ANSWER>>>> DEOXYGENATED widening of beta-chain lower affinity for O2 expels 2,3-DPG "Relaxed form" of Hgb CORRECT ANSWER>>>> OXYGENATED beta-chain pulled together higher affinity for O2 expels 2,3-DPG "Shift Right" CORRECT ANSWER>>>> higher P50 value decreased pH (increased H+ ion), acidosis increased 2,3-DPG higher temperature high pCO Seen in compensated anemia "Shift Left" CORRECT ANSWER>>>> lower P50 value increased pH (decresed H+ ion), alkalosis decreasede 2,3-DPG lower temeratures low pCO Seen in storage of RBC Type 2 precursor CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Gal-GlcNAc B1- 4 Type 1 precursor CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Gal-GlcNAc

Ael subgroup CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Negative anti-A Secretes H only Highest expression of H Lowest expression of H CORRECT ANSWER>>>> O>A2>B>A2B>A1>A1B> H deficient Lewis transferase & Sugar CORRECT ANSWER>>>> FUT- 3 Fuctose alpha1- 4 Type 1 H antigen transferase & sugar CORRECT ANSWER>>>> FUT- 2 Fuctose alpha1- 2 anti-Le bh vs anti-Le bl CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Anti-Le bh= reacts best with Leb & H are on rbc reacts best with group O and A2 does not react with A1 & B Anti-Le bl= reacts independently of amount of H on rbc best antisera to use when typing RBC autoanti-H, - HI is most common in... CORRECT ANSWER>>>> A1 patients, have the least amount of H

Elevated i antigen associated with... CORRECT ANSWER>>>> cord cells reticulocytes in megaloblastic anemia leukemia stressed erythropoiesis I gene CORRECT ANSWER>>>> IGnT adds GlcNAc to Gal starts branching/ multivalent anti-i associated with what disease CORRECT ANSWER>>>> infectious mono autoanti-i, - I commonly seen in patients with.... CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections Lymphoproliferative disorder (Waldenstrom macroglobinemia) P1K & P2K lack what gene/ antigen CORRECT ANSWER>>>> B3GalNAct missing P antigen (also Gb5 & LKE) p lack what gene/ antigen CORRECT ANSWER>>>> A4GALT missing P1/PX2 & Pk (also P, Gb5 &LKE) P1 substance derived from... CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Hydaited cyst Bird eggs liver fluke

Ch/Rg (E/DTT) CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Enzyme= destroys Gerbich (E/DTT) CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Enzyme decrease Ge2 &Ge Crom (E/DTT) CORRECT ANSWER>>>> DTT= Sesitive Knops (E/DTT) CORRECT ANSWER>>>> DTT= Sensitive Resistent to papain, sensitive to ficin Indian (E/DTT) CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Enzyme= sensitive DTT= sensitive JMH (E/DTT) CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Enzyme= sensitive DTT= sensitive Enzyme destroys CORRECT ANSWER>>>> MN Fya/Fyb Ge2, Ge Indian JMH Ch/Rg Yt- variable Ss-variable

Enzymes enhance CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Rh I P Kidd Lewis Dombrock (sesitive to trypsin) DTT Destroys CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Kell LW Cromer Knops Indian JHM Scianna Weakens= Yt, Lutheran, MER2, Dombrock *Destroys disulfide bonds Chloroquine Diphosphate Weakens CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Rh Dombrock Knops JMH

RHD pseudogene CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Rh Negative Gene present but inactive due to stop codon Partial D; DIII CORRECT ANSWER>>>> DAK (Rh54) Partial D; DIVa CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Goa (Rh30) Partial D; DIVb CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Evans (Rh37), also associated with D** (dot dot) Partial D; DV CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Dw (Rh23) Partial D; DVI CORRECT ANSWER>>>> BARC (Rh52) Partial D; DVII CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Tar (Rh40) anti-hrs reacts best with.... CORRECT ANSWER>>>> f+ cells anti-hrb reacts best with... CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Ce+ cells Strongest to weakesot expression of D CORRECT ANSWER>>>> D>R2R2>R1R2>R1R1>Ro

Elevated D CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Demonstrates no Cc/Ee forms anti-Rh17 (Hro, Solomon) absent antigens, Rh17, Rh18 (Hr), Rh34 (HrB) Rh null; amorph CORRECT ANSWER>>>> RHCE deletion can make anti-Rh29 associated with Stomatocytosis/Spherocytosis Absent Ag: Rh, Lw, Fy Reduced: RhAG, GPB, CD 47 Rh null; regulator CORRECT ANSWER>>>> RHAG gene altered (nucleotide changes in RHAG) can make anti-Rh29 associated with Stomatocytosis/Spherocytosis Absent Ag: Rh, Lw, RhAG, Fy Reduced Ag: CD47, GPB Rh null: Regulator vs Amorph CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Amorph: RHD deletion, reduced RhAG Regulator: RHAG altered, absent RhAG Rh mod CORRECT ANSWER>>>> decreased expression of Rh antigen no associated antibodies M antigen amino acid sequence CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Ser-Ser-Thr-Thr-Gly

Ko CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Kell null lack all Kell antigens make anti-Ku & - Km What antibodies to McLeod patients make CORRECT ANSWER>>>> anti-KL= anti-Km + anti- Kx anti-Fy3 vs anti-Fy5 CORRECT ANSWER>>>> anti-Fy3 will react with Rh null rbc anti-Fy5 wont react with Rh null rbc T Polyagglutinaiton CORRECT ANSWER>>>> acquired by infection/bacteria bacteria produce neuraminidase cleaves Nacetylneuraminic acid from rbc membrane negative autocontrol Th Polyagglutination CORRECT ANSWER>>>> acquired in septic patients neuraminidase weaker than Tn & T Tk Polyagglutination CORRECT ANSWER>>>> acquired in septic patients

bacteria produces endo/exo-B-galactosidase cleaves galactose residue from paragloboside once infection is cleared, polyagg disappears Tn Polyagglutination CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Mutation in hematopoietic tissue= inherited clone lacks B- 3 - D-galactosyltrasferase permanent autocontrol= mixed field anti-Tn is naturally occuring Cad/Sda CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Cad+ cells agglutinated by anti-Sda= looks like autoantibody Normal levels of Sialic acid Sda found in urine- urine neutralizes anti-Sda HEMPAS CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Congenital Dyserythropoietic Anemia Type II RBC have second membrane (internal) RBC have increased i, decreased H lysis by anti-I and anti-i

Polybrene with Polyagglutination CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Polybrene is a positively charged polymer Neutralizes negative charge on normal cells Positive= Normal cells Negative= Polyagglutination Vitamin K dependent Coag factors CORRECT ANSWER>>>> II (thrombin) VII IX X Protein C Protein S Frozen Red cells CORRECT ANSWER>>>> must be frozen within 6 days of collection If the unit has additive; freeze before expiration Rejuvenated RBC CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Restore 2,3-DPG and ATP above normal levels contains inosine, phosphate & adenine wash and transfuse within 24 hours or freeze (cannot use AS-3/AS-5)

Deglycerolized RBC CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Deglyc with solution of decreasing osmolarity to avoid hemolysis Mean RBC recover >80% hemolysis <3% Refraction value < Osmolality <400 mOsm/kg H2O RBC Leukocyte reduced CORRECT ANSWER>>>> must reatain 85% of original rbc <5x10^6 leukocytes/unit Low Volume RBC CORRECT ANSWER>>>> 450 ml bag= 300-404 ml 500 ml bag= 333-449 ml Apheresis RBC CORRECT ANSWER>>>> mean Hgb >60g per unit (180 ml) 95% of tested, Hgb >50 (150 ml) Aperesis RBC Leukocyte Reduced CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Mean Hgb >51 g per unit (153 ml) 95% of tested:

  • 42.5 g per unit (128 ml)

  • < 5x10^6 leukocytes FFP CORRECT ANSWER>>>> frozen within 8 hours of collection expires 24 hours after thaw (can be transformed to thawed plasma)

contains: fibrinogen, vWF, FVIII, FXIII & fibronectin min. requirements: 150 mg Fibrinogen, 80 IU FVIII Plasma cryo reduced CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Plasma with cryo removed, frozen within 24 of thawing reduced: FVIII, vWF, fibrinogen, FXIII normal FV & ~200 mg fibrinogen primary use: plasma exchange in pt. with TTP Recovered Plasma CORRECT ANSWER>>>> aka plasma for manufacture donation originally intended for transfusion used for fractionation into derivatives (ie albumin) Infrequent plasma donation CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Source plasma= plasma for further manufacturing derivatives Donation interval= 2 days aka serial plasmapheresis

Source Plasma CORRECT ANSWER>>>> plasma collected by plasmapheresis and intended as source material for further manufacturing derivatives (ie albumin, clotting factors, ect) Platelet unit CORRECT ANSWER>>>> resuspended in 40-70ml of plasma 90% of tested:

  • 5.5 x 10^10 platelets/unit

  • 6.2 ph at end of storage Platelet leukocyte reduced CORRECT ANSWER>>>> same prep at unfiltered PLT ( ml of plasma) 75% tested: >5.5 x 10^10 PLT/unit

90% tested: >6.2 ph at end of storage 95% tested: <8.3x 10^5 leukocytes Plasma dose CORRECT ANSWER>>>> 10 - 20 ml/kg Apheresis PLT CORRECT ANSWER>>>> Therapeutic dose collected from single donor 200 - 300 ml/unit