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RNSG 1301 Pharmacology Exam 1 2025 Spring Latest Update
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- A nurse is assessing the client's home medication use. After listening to the client list current medications, the nurse asks what priority question? A) "Do you take any generic medications?" B) "Are any of these medications orphan drugs?" C) "Are these medications safe to take during pregnancy?" D) "Do you take any over-the-counter medications?" D) "Do you take any over-the-counter medications?"
- Which classification applies to Morphine? A) central nervous system depressant B) central nervous system stimulant C) anti-inflammatory D) antihypertensive A) central nervous system depressant
- While studying for the test, a nursing student encounters the following drug: ibuprofen (Motrin). What does the nursing student identify the name ibuprofen as? A) The generic name B) The chemical name C) The brand name D) The chemical and generic name A) The generic name
- A nurse is teaching the client about the use of over the counter (OTC) drugs. Which statement best informs the client about their use?
A) "OTC drugs are products that are available without prescription for self-treatment of minor health issues." B) "OTC drugs are considered medication and should be reported on a drug history." C) "OTC drugs were approved as prescription drugs but later were found to be safe without the need of a prescription." D) "OTC drugs need to be taken with caution; they can mask the signs and symptoms of an underlying disease and interfere with prescription drug therapy." D) "OTC drugs need to be taken with caution; they can mask the signs and symptoms of an underlying disease and interfere with prescription drug therapy."
- Which term is used to describe the study of drugs and their action on living organism? A) Pharmacology B) Microbiology C) Biology D) Pharmacotherapeutics A) Pharmacology
- A health care facility is complying with the mandates of The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) concerning Schedule II medications when implementing which nursing intervention? Select all that apply. A) Assess to narcotics is controlled by key or codes. B) Narcotics are administered by prescriptions only. C) Only selected narcotics may be automatically renewed. D) The administration of individual narcotic doses are recorded in specific unit documentation. E) Any recognized discrepancy involving a narcotic must be reported to the appropriate facility authority. A) Assess to narcotics is controlled by key or codes. B) Narcotics are administered by prescriptions only. D) The administration of individual narcotic doses are recorded in specific unit documentation. E) Any recognized discrepancy involving a narcotic must be reported to the appropriate facility authority.
A) It can only be administered by a health care provider or advanced practice nurse. B) Administration must be cosigned by a second registered nurse or practical/vocational nurse. C) It is currently undergoing Phase 4 testing and is pending full FDA approval. D) Administration errors carry a heightened risk of causing significant client harm. D) Administration errors carry a heightened risk of causing significant client harm.
- A hospital nurse is vigilant in ensuring the safe use of medications and consistently applies the rights of medication administration. What are the rights of medication administration? Select all that apply. A) right to refuse prescribed medication B) right route for effective medication therapy C) right to effective medication education D) right evaluation of expected results E) right to low-cost medication therapy A) right to refuse prescribed medication B) right route for effective medication therapy C) right to effective medication education D) right evaluation of expected results
- The nurse is caring for an older adult who needs to know that drugs, even when taken correctly, can produce negative or unexpected effects. The nurse should address what topic during health education? A) Teratogenic effects B) Toxic effects C) Adverse effects D) Paradoxical effects C) Adverse effects
- Which process occurs between the time the drug enters the body and the time that it enters the bloodstream? A) absorption B) distribution
C) metabolism D) excretion A) absorption
- Which site is preferred when consideration must be made to identifying an exceptionally large surface area for drug absorption? A) rectum B) fundus of the stomach C) esophagus D) lungs D) lungs
- An older adult client has an elevated serum creatinine level. This client is at greatest risk for which medication-related effect? A) toxicity B) increased absorption C) delayed gastric emptying D) idiosyncratic effects A) toxicity
- What is the primary role of protein binding on drug action? A) increasing the medication's speed of action B) decreasing the medication's speed of action C) increasing the rate of the medication's excretion D) averting the risk of adverse effects posed by the medication B) decreasing the medication's speed of action
- The nurse is aware that it requires approximately how many half-lives for a client to excrete a medication from the body? A) 4- 5
- A client has been prescribed a medication that is known to be a drug agonist. This drug will have what effect? A) It will react with a receptor site on a cell preventing a reaction with another chemical on a different receptor site. B) The drug will interfere with the enzyme system that act as catalyst for different chemical reactions. C) The drug will interact directly with receptor sites to cause the same activity that a natural chemical would case at that site. D) It will react with receptor sites to block normal stimulation, production no effect. C) The drug will interact directly with receptor sites to cause the same activity that a natural chemical would case at that site.
- A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder has begun lithium therapy. What is the primary rationale for the nurse's instructions regarding the need for regular monitoring of the client's serum drug levels? A) It is necessary to regularly test for blood-drug incompatibilities that may develop during treatment. B) It is necessary to ensure that the client's drug levels are therapeutic but not toxic. C) It is needed to determine if additional medications will be needed to potentiate the effects of lithium. D) It is needed in order to confirm the client's adherence to the drug regimen. B) It is necessary to ensure that the client's drug levels are therapeutic but not toxic.
- A client in medical unit requires pharmacological interventions involving a slow drug action and response. What route of administration is most likely appropriate? A) intravenous B) oral C) rectal D) topical B) oral
- The nurse is preparing to start an IV on a client who requires antibiotic therapy. The client is prescribed an intravenous antibiotic. What is the major advantage of the intravenous route over the enteral route? A) The associated infection will be resolved faster. B) The client will not need close monitoring for adverse effects. C) The client is at risk of developing a future tolerance to the antibiotic. D) Resolution of the infection will require a larger dose of antibiotic. A) The associated infection will be resolved faster.
- A nurse begins a client interaction by systematically gathering information on the client's care and eventually evaluating the outcomes of care. Which represents this continuum of care? A) assessment process B) outcomes analysis C) nursing interventions D) nursing process D) nursing process
- Which assessment should be made by the nurse before administering a new medication? A) determining the client's past medication history B) evaluating the client's health beliefs C) instructing the client on the effect of the medication D) teaching the client about the desired outcomes of drug therapy A) determining the client's past medication history
- A client has informed the nurse that he has begun supplementing his medication regimen with a series of herbal remedies recommended by his sister-in-law. Which is the most important nursing intervention regarding the safe use of herbal supplements? A) Research for potential interactions with medications. B) Instruct the client to discontinue them if taking prescription medications. C) Instruct the client to take the supplements 1 hour before prescription medications. D) Instruct the client to take the supplements 3 hours after prescription medications.
B) Documentation C) Reporting D) Assessment E) Planning A) Evaluation D) Assessment E) Planning
- Which nursing action when administering medication to children is appropriately directed toward medication safety? A) If a child is resistant to taking the medication, the nurse should tell the child that it is candy. B) Measurement by teaspoons is as accurate as milliliters. C) If a drug is not supplied in liquid form, the nurse can always crush the pill. D) Assess the child's weight prior to initial drug administration D) Assess the child's weight prior to initial drug administration When considering physiological variables that influence safe pharmacotherapy in clients younger than 18, which principle should the nurse integrate into care? A) The physiology of clients older than 15 can be considered to be the same as an adult client. B) The younger the client, the greater the variation in medication action compared to an adult. C) The larger the client's body mass index, the more his or her physiology varies from that of an adult. D) Pediatric clients have a greater potential to benefit from pharmacotherapy than adult clients. B) The younger the client, the greater the variation in medication action compared to an adult. Significant pharmacodynamic variations exist between adult clients and pediatric clients. Which factor is known to contribute to differences in the ways that drugs affect target cells in children and infants? Select all that apply. A) inability of children to accurately describe adverse effects B) immaturity of children's organ systems C) differences in the body composition of children D) the lack of active immunity in children
E) differences in the function of humoral immunity in children B) immaturity of children's organ systems C) differences in the body composition of children An infant who recently experienced seizures is being treated in the neonatal intensive care unit with phenytoin. The infant's low plasma protein levels during the first year of life have what consequence? A) The infant may have an unpredictable drug response. B) The infant may have an increased risk of toxicity. C) The infant may experience impaired elimination of the drug. D) The infant will have an increased rate of drug metabolism. B) The infant may have an increased risk of toxicity. An older adult client has sought care for a dermatological health problem that most often requires treatment with an oral corticosteroid. When considering whether to prescribe steroids to this client, the care provider should prioritize which question? A) "Should this client receive a medication that was likely tested on younger adults?" B) "Do the potential benefits of this medication outweigh the potential harm?" C) "Are there plausible herbal or complementary alternatives to this medication?" D) "Is there a younger adult who can oversee this client's medication regimen?" B) "Do the potential benefits of this medication outweigh the potential harm?" When appraising an older adult's ability to excrete medications, what laboratory or diagnostic finding should the nurse prioritize? A) renal ultrasound B) complete blood count (CBC) C) serum bilirubin and albumin levels D) blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels D) blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
A pregnant woman asks why she needs to take a folic acid supplement. What is the nurse's best explanation for the administration of folic acid? A) "Folic acid prevents the development of contractions." B) "Folic acid prevents neural tube birth defects." C) "Folic acid builds strong fetal bones." D) "Folic acid will decrease nausea and vomiting." B) "Folic acid prevents neural tube birth defects." A woman is being administered IV magnesium sulfate. What is a desired outcome related to the administration of magnesium sulfate? A) increased contractions B) respiratory rate above 18 C) decreased blood pressure D) increased uterine tone C) decreased blood pressure A woman who began labor several hours ago is now prescribed oxytocin. What is the goal of oxytocin therapy? A) prevent postpartum bleeding B) decrease fetal hyperactivity C) augment weak or irregular contractions D) diminish periods of uterine relaxation C) augment weak or irregular contractions A woman in preterm labor has been administered terbutaline sulfate. For what potential adverse effects should the nurse assess the client? A) pruritus (itching) and copious diaphoresis B) joint pain and numbness in her extremities C) headache and visual disturbances
D) palpitations and shortness of breath D) palpitations and shortness of breath A woman who is at 31 week's gestation comes to the clinic in labor. The health care provider decides to use terbutaline therapy before transferring the woman to the hospital. The client is upset and confused and ask the nurse why can't just have the baby, that it's only 5 weeks early. An appropriate response by the nurse should be: A) "This drug will make you delivery in few days less painful." B) "The drug that you are being given will prevent and control postpartum bleeding." C) "The drug provides sufficient time for other medication to be given to improve your baby's outcome." D) "This drug helps induce uterine contractions and milk ejection for breast-feeding." C) "The drug provides sufficient time for other medication to be given to improve your baby's outcome." A nurse is performing health education with a woman who has just learned that she is pregnant. The nurse has explained the concept of teratogenic drugs and emphasized the need to have her care provider assess any medications she should consider taking. The nurse should teach the woman that drug-induced teratogenicity is most likely to occur at what point in her pregnancy? A) during the second half of her third trimester B) in the 7 to 10 days after conception C) in the first trimester during organogenesis D) during 30 to 34 weeks of gestation C) in the first trimester during organogenesis We have an expert-written solution to this problem! A nurse is instructing a pregnant client concerning the potential risk to her fetus from a Pregnancy Category D drug. What should the nurse inform the client? A) "Adequate studies in pregnant women have demonstrated there is no risk to the fetus." B) "Animal studies have not demonstrated a risk to the fetus, but there have been no adequate studies in pregnant women."
We have an expert-written solution to this problem! An insulin-dependent diabetic client has begun taking an oral contraceptive. What effect will this medication regime have on her physiologically? A) increase risk of hypoglycemia B) increase heart rate C) increase blood glucose D) increase risk of metabolic alkalosis C) increase blood glucose We have an expert-written solution to this problem! A 34-year-old woman has presented to the clinic for the first time, and the nurse learns that she has been taking medroxyprogesterone for the past 13 years. This aspect of the woman's medical history should prompt what assessment? A) cardiac stress testing B) renal ultrasound C) bone density testing D) evaluation of triglyceride levels C) bone density testing We have an expert-written solution to this problem! A 41-year-old male client with a complex medical history has been referred to the endocrinology department. Diagnostic testing and assessment have resulted in a diagnosis of secondary hypogonadism. Which health problem is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis? A) diabetes B) mumps C) an inflammatory process in the testicles D) testicular trauma A) diabetes We have an expert-written solution to this problem!
A 52-year-old has made an appointment with his primary care provider and has reluctantly admitted that his primary health concern is erectile dysfunction (ED). He describes the problem as increasing in severity and consequent distress. Which of the nurse's assessment questions is most likely to address a common cause of ED? A) "How would you describe your overall level of health?" B) "Are you taking any medications for high blood pressure?" C) "How has this problem been affecting your relationship with your wife?" D) "Have you suffered any injuries of any kind in the last several months?" B) "Are you taking any medications for high blood pressure?" We have an expert-written solution to this problem! The nurse is educating an older adult client newly diagnosed with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) about the prescribed tamsulosin. Which statement made by the client establishes the need for further clarification? A) "I will inform my dentist or eye doc that I take tamsulosin and other drug I am prescribed." B) "I will rise from the bed or chair slowly because the drug may cause hypotension or dizziness." C) "The drug can be taken on an empty stomach to improve absorption and effectiveness of the drug." D) "If I have experience problems with falling or staying asleep, I will notify my prescriber for further help." C) "The drug can be taken on an empty stomach to improve absorption and effectiveness of the drug." A 1 7 - year-old boy has been admitted to the emergency department after suffering a knee sprain during a football practice. The nurse notes that the client has exceptional muscle mass, and the boy quietly admits that this is mostly attributable to the use of steroids, which he obtains from a teammate. What should the nurse teach the boy about anabolic steroid abuse? A) The ability of anabolic steroids to build muscle is greatly exaggerated in the media. B) Anabolic steroids are universally dangerous but are especially harmful to adolescents. C) The muscle mass resulting from steroid use will atrophy unless doses are continually increased. D) Anabolic steroids will reduce the boy's ability to perform weight-bearing exercise later in life.
The nurse educates a client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation about the prescribed warfarin. Which client statements establish the need for further clarification? A) "I will keep my lab appointments for prothrombin and INR levels." B) "I will take the warfarin at the same time each day." C) "I will not eat green leafy vegetables, broccoli, yogurt, or cheese." D) "I will not drink alcohol unless it is all right with my primary care provider." C) "I will not eat green leafy vegetables, broccoli, yogurt, or cheese." A client is admitted with thrombophlebitis and sent home on enoxaparin therapy. Which statement indicates a good understanding of why enoxaparin is being administered? A) Enoxaparin inhibits the formation of additional clots. B) Enoxaparin eliminates certain clotting factors. C) Enoxaparin decreases the viscosity of blood. D) Enoxaparin will dissolve the existing clots. A) Enoxaparin inhibits the formation of additional clots. A client is being discharged from the hospital with warfarin to be taken at home. Which food should the client be instructed to avoid in the diet? A) eggs B) dairy products C) apples D) spinach D) spinach A client is discharged from the hospital with a prescription of warfarin. Which statement indicates successful client teaching? A) "If I miss a dose, I will take two doses." B) "I will avoid herbal remedies." C) "I will eat spinach or broccoli daily." D) "I will discontinue my other medications." B) "I will avoid herbal remedies."
A client is taking warfarin to prevent clot formation related to atrial fibrillation. How are the effects of the warfarin monitored? A) RBC B) aPTT C) PT and INR D) platelet count C) PT and INR A 55 - year-old man has been diagnosed with coronary artery disease and begun antiplatelet therapy. The man has asked the nurse why he is not taking a "blood thinner like warfarin." What is the most likely rationale for the clinician's use of an antiplatelet agent rather than an anticoagulant? A) Antiplatelet agents do not require the man to undergo frequent blood work; anticoagulants require constant blood work to ensure safety. B) Antiplatelet agents are more effective against arterial thrombosis; anticoagulants are more effective against venous thrombosis. C) Antiplatelet agents are most effective in large vessels; anticoagulants are most effective in the small vessels of the peripheral circulation. D) Antiplatelet agents have fewer adverse effects than anticoagulants. B) Antiplatelet agents are more effective against arterial thrombosis; anticoagulants are more effective against venous thrombosis. A nurse at a long-term care facility is conducting a medication reconciliation for a man who has just moved into the facility. The man is currently taking clopidogrel. The nurse is most justified suspecting that this man has a history of: A) hemorrhagic cerebrovascular accident. B) hemophilia A. C) idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). D) myocardial infarction. D) myocardial infarction.
