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Remar Courses and Quizzes (NCLEX) | Questions with 100 % Correct Answers | Verified, Exams of Advanced Education

Widener University - DelawareAdvanced Education

1. Fertilization is expected in the: Fallopian tube 2. Estimated date of delivery (Naegele's rule): September 13, 2023

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 07/06/2025

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Remar Courses and Quizzes (NCLEX)
1. Fertilization is expected in the:
Fallopian tube
2. Estimated date of delivery (Naegele's rule):
September 13, 2023
3. Function of the placenta:
"It gives the baby food and oxygen"
4. Hormone that keeps the corpus luteum alive until the placenta forms:
HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin hormone)
5. (T/F) Fetus shares blood supply with the mother:
False
6. When an Rh-negative client receives Rho(D) immune globulin:
28 weeks
7. (T/F) Pregnancy could be completed to term if the placenta is
damaged/removed:
False
8. Abnormal infant color—most likely exam:
Bilirubin level
9. Statement suggesting preeclampsia at 34 weeks:
"I no longer wear my wedding ring because it doesn’t fit."
10. Most important to protect a fetus:
Amniotic fluid
11. Most common cyanotic congenital heart disease:
Tetralogy of Fallot
12. Safe anticoagulant during pregnancy:
Heparin sodium
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Remar Courses and Quizzes (NCLEX)

  1. Fertilization is expected in the: Fallopian tube
  2. Estimated date of delivery (Naegele's rule): September 13, 2023
  3. Function of the placenta: "It gives the baby food and oxygen"
  4. Hormone that keeps the corpus luteum alive until the placenta forms: HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin hormone)
  5. (T/F) Fetus shares blood supply with the mother: False
  6. When an Rh-negative client receives Rho(D) immune globulin: 28 weeks
  7. (T/F) Pregnancy could be completed to term if the placenta is damaged/removed: False
  8. Abnormal infant color — most likely exam: Bilirubin level
  9. Statement suggesting preeclampsia at 34 weeks: "I no longer wear my wedding ring because it doesn’t fit."
  10. Most important to protect a fetus: Amniotic fluid
  11. Most common cyanotic congenital heart disease: Tetralogy of Fallot
  12. Safe anticoagulant during pregnancy: Heparin sodium
  1. Uterine layer responding to hormonal changes: Endometrium
  2. Primary purpose of GnRH: Stimulates secretion of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary gland.
  3. Hormone produced by the placenta during pregnancy: Human placental lactogen
  4. Typical age for an infant’s first word: 11 - 13 months
  5. Highest priority for a child with AIDS: High-risk infection
  6. Semen characteristic protecting sperm: Alkaline fluid
  7. Location of urinary meatus in pregnant females: Within the vestibule
  8. Action if oxytocin-induced contractions occur > every 2 minutes: Decrease oxytocin
  9. Priority phone call to return: Post-eye surgery client with no bowel movement in 3 days
  10. Highest risk for pressure ulcer (Braden scale): Score of 15
  11. Ischemic wound definition: Deficient blood supply to the tissue
  12. Most at risk for opportunistic infection: Client with AIDS
  13. Skin care for reddened coccyx: Clean with mild soap/water, pat dry
  14. Most important action during catheter insertion: Keep sterile field in front of the nurse
  15. First action for slurred speech, paralysis, unequal pupils: Assess respiratory status
  1. Fetal alcohol syndrome feature (4-year-old): Smaller-than-average brain size
  2. Medication to promote clotting: Vitamin K
  3. Mental process most sensitive to aging decline: Short-term memory
  4. Malnourished surgical patient concern: Wound healing compromised
  5. Medication likely to negatively affect BP: Metoprolol
  6. Action for client in continuous pain: Handle gently during care
  7. Peak medication level too high indicates: Toxicity
  8. Diet for chemotherapy-induced GI upset: Bland, low-fiber diet
  9. Vitamin preventing neural tube defects: Folic acid
  10. Abbreviation for "after meals": PC (post cibum)
  11. Highest risk for adverse drug reaction: 49 - year-old with kidney disease
  12. Effective nitroglycerin teaching statement: "If I have chest pain, I should stop activity and take a tablet."
  13. Action NOT part of the "six rights": Assessing pain 15-30 mins post-administration
  14. Emergent care for suspected MI: Oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin, morphine
  15. Dietary restriction for liver failure: Meats and beans
  1. Action before administering antibiotic to allergic client: Ask about allergy to the prescribed drug
  2. Part of "six rights" (SATA): o Check MAR for last dose timing o Document reason for administration o Consult drug manual for dose appropriateness
  3. Digoxin toxicity symptom: Nausea
  4. Blood pressure documentation (140/95, 165/100, 135/99): Hypertension
  5. Myasthenia gravis education: Eat meals during medication peak time
  6. Action for penicillin-induced hives/itching: Hold dose, notify provider
  7. Priority action before neonate bath: Take vital signs
  8. Highest risk for adverse drug reactions: 19 - year-old with kidney disease
  9. Hypertonic IV solution example: Dextrose 5% in Lactated Ringer’s (D5LR)
  10. Action for TPN client with glucose 425 mg/dL: Notify physician
  11. Initial action before antibiotics in TPN client: Ensure separate IV access
  12. Gentamicin classification: Aminoglycoside
  13. Lorazepam classification: Benzodiazepine
  14. Serious tetracycline side effects: Teeth staining, tinnitus
  1. Wilms tumor symptom: Abdominal swelling
  2. First intervention for burn dressing change: Pre-medicate with narcotic analgesic
  3. Priority for IV/pain reliever administration: Myocardial infarction
  4. Findings suggesting C. difficile: Watery stool, cramping, fever (test needed)
  5. Arthrogram purpose: Identify cartilage disorders
  6. Priority for sudden chest pain: Obtain vital signs
  7. Predisposition to pediatric ear infections: Short, wide Eustachian tube
  8. Findings suggesting scarlet fever: Fever, sore throat, red rash, inflamed tonsils
  9. Most important pre-replacement therapy evaluation: Kidney function
  10. Y-type infusate use: Blood administration
  11. Largest catheter size: 18 - gauge
  12. IV therapy complication: Phlebitis
  13. Antidote for heparin: Protamine sulfate
  14. Medications NOT for NG tube (select 3):
- Enteric-coated tablets - Sustained-release tablets - IV medications
  1. Creatinine clearance collection: 24 - hour urine specimen
  2. Immediate attention for casted wrist: Prickling sensation in hand
  3. Action for lisinopril with low BP/pulse: Hold medication
  4. Correct IV therapy intervention: Monitor flow rate hourly
  5. Lab result for +Trousseau/Chvostek signs: Calcium 5.4 (low)
  6. Diabetes insipidus treatment (select 3):
- Restrict salt - Increase water intake - Vasopressin
  1. Action for K+ 7.8 (previously 4.3): Redraw blood
  2. Expected signs of low ADH (select 4):
- Nocturia - Tachycardia - BP 80/ - Dehydration
  1. Cause of fluid volume excess: Renal failure
  2. Supine position benefits (select 2):
- Position of rest - Environmental visibility
  1. Priority for renal calculi with pain/nausea: Manage pain
  2. Action for itch under cast: Tap outside cast over itch
  1. Therapeutic response to suicidal client pacing: "I notice you pacing. How are you feeling?"
  2. Therapeutic response to depressed client: "You’ve felt like a failure for a while. Do you plan to harm yourself?"
  3. Therapeutic response to widower refusing to eat: "Your wife died 2 years ago. Here’s your meal."
  4. Health literacy definition: Ability to understand/use health info for decisions
  5. Transformational leadership action: Encourage UAP to attend nursing school
  6. Confirmatory COVID-19 test postpartum: RT-PCR test
  7. SBAR background example: "Client takes hydromorphone at home."
  8. Erythrocytosis intervention/monitoring: Therapeutic phlebotomy; CBC/iron levels
  9. Gout dietary avoidances: Sardines, baked cheesy scallops
  10. Diphenoxylate/atropine side effect: Urinary retention
  11. Physical exam technique for density detection: Percussion
  12. Condition from increased intraocular pressure: Glaucoma
  13. Intervention for antacid overdose: NG tube placement
  14. Medication for heparin overdose: Protamine sulfate
  15. Initial ICP assessment: Unequal pupil size
  1. Lab to report during burn diuresis phase: K+ 3.2 mEq/L
  2. Rupturing AAA sign: Back/abdominal pain
  3. Frequent assessment for neutropenic leukemia: Breath sounds
  4. The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism. Which diagnostic test is most definitive? CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA) or V/Q scan
  5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. The nurse should monitor for: Hypokalemia
  6. The nurse is assessing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which finding is most concerning? Shortness of breath (possible pulmonary embolism)
  7. A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. The nurse should teach the client to report which side effect immediately? Lactic acidosis (symptoms: muscle pain, weakness, difficulty breathing)
  8. A post-op client suddenly develops chest pain and hypotension. The nurse suspects a pulmonary embolism. What is the priority action? Administer oxygen and notify the provider immediately.
  9. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is at risk for which complication? Stroke (due to possible blood clot formation)
  10. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which intervention helps prevent tube displacement? Secure the tube properly and mark the exit site.
  1. A client with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted with confusion and ataxia. The nurse suspects: Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome (thiamine deficiency)
  2. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should teach the client to report: Unusual bleeding or bruising.
  3. A client with a history of schizophrenia is prescribed haloperidol. The nurse should monitor for: Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
  4. A client with a urinary catheter develops fever and flank pain. The nurse suspects: Catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI).
  5. A client with a history of COPD is prescribed prednisone. The nurse should teach the client to monitor for: Signs of infection (immunosuppression risk).
  6. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for: Signs of toxicity (nausea, vomiting, vision changes).
  7. A client with a history of diabetes is prescribed insulin. The nurse should teach the client to recognize: Hypoglycemia (sweating, shakiness, confusion).
  8. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse should teach the client to report: Persistent dry cough (common ACE inhibitor side effect).
  9. A client with a history of asthma is prescribed albuterol. The nurse should teach the client to report: Palpitations or chest pain (possible side effect).
  10. A client with a history of depression is prescribed fluoxetine. The nurse should teach the client to report: Suicidal thoughts (especially in early treatment).
  1. A client with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate. The nurse should teach the client to: Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for 30 minutes.
  2. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. The nurse should monitor for: Gingival hyperplasia (gum overgrowth).
  3. A client with a history of HIV is prescribed zidovudine (AZT). The nurse should monitor for: Anemia and neutropenia.
  4. A client with a history of hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine. The nurse should teach the client to take the medication: On an empty stomach in the morning.
  5. A client with a history of GERD is prescribed omeprazole. The nurse should teach the client to take the medication: Before breakfast.
  6. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. The nurse should monitor: Serum lithium levels and kidney function.
  7. A client with a history of tuberculosis is prescribed isoniazid (INH). The nurse should teach the client to report: Numbness or tingling in extremities (sign of peripheral neuropathy).
  8. A client with a history of anemia is prescribed iron supplements. The nurse should teach the client to take the medication with: Vitamin C (to enhance absorption).
  9. A client with a history of glaucoma is prescribed timolol eye drops. The nurse should teach the client to: Apply pressure to the lacrimal duct after administration.
  1. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse should monitor for: Hyperkalemia.
  2. A client with a history of diabetes is prescribed empagliflozin. The nurse should teach the client to monitor for: Urinary tract infections (UTIs).
  3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed losartan. The nurse should teach the client to report: Dizziness (possible hypotension).
  4. A client with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed denosumab. The nurse should teach the client to report: Jaw pain (osteonecrosis risk).
  5. A client with a history of HIV is prescribed efavirenz. The nurse should teach the client to report: Vivid dreams or hallucinations (CNS side effects).
  6. A client with a history of depression is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should teach the client to report: Increased blood pressure (possible side effect).
  7. A client with a history of asthma is prescribed montelukast. The nurse should teach the client to report: Mood changes (possible neuropsychiatric effects).
  8. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed clonidine. The nurse should teach the client to avoid: Abrupt discontinuation (rebound hypertension).
  9. A client with a history of diabetes is prescribed liraglutide. The nurse should teach the client to report: Severe abdominal pain (pancreatitis risk).