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RDA law and ethics exam registered dental assistant duties RDA conditional duties ultrason, Exams of Dentistry

Howard UniversityDentistry

RDA law and ethics exam registered dental assistant duties RDA conditional duties ultrasonic scaler use in dentistry orthodontic assistant permitholder duties dental sedation assistant tasks pit and fissure sealants course board-approved dental education

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 06/23/2025

Prof.Humphrey
Prof.Humphrey šŸ‡ŗšŸ‡ø

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RDA Law and Ethics Exam
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1. conditional duties of an RDA: a- remove excess cement with an ultrasonic scaler from
supragivgival surfaces of teeth undergoing ortho treatment
b- allowable duties of an ortho assistant permitholder
c- allowable duties of a dental sedation assistant permitholder
d- application of pit and fissure sealants
2. when can an RDA perform conditional duties?: only when they have complet- ed a board-
approved educational program or when they can provide evidence on completing a board-
approved course in the specific subject
3. what evidence does an RDA need to provide to accompany their first license renewal
(regarding conditional duties)?: evidence of completion of a board-ap- proved pit and fissure
sealants course; if not, license will be suspended
4. what duties may a DA/RDA/RDAEF perform while working for/at a primary care clinic
or specialty clinic?: any extraoral duty, coronal polish, topical fluoride application, pit and
fissure sealants (if course completed) when under Direct Super- vision of RDH/RDHAP
5. dental auxillary: a person who may perform dental supportive procedures under specified
supervision of a licensed DDS
6. dental assistant: unlicensed person who may perform basic supportive proce- dures
under the supervision of a DDS
7. registered dental assistant: a licensed person who may perform all authorized procedures
in addition to all basic supportive procedures a DA may perform
8. direct supervision: supervision of dental procedures based of DDS instruction and the
DDS being physically present in treatment facility during the specified procedure
9. general supervision: supervision of dental procedures based on DDS instruc- tion but
where DDS must not be physically present during time of specified proce- dure
10. basic supportive dental procedures: dental procedures categorized by their technically
elementary characteristics, complete reversibility and inability to create potentially
hazardous conditions for the PT
11. continuing education: a condition of license renewal, the submission if evi- dence of
an RDA/RDH/DDS continuing to stay educated on new and improving developments in
the practice of dentistry, as well as reviewing infection control procedures, dental law, and
BLS
12. how much of an RDAs contiuing education can the Board dictate?: 7.5 hrs in the general
areas of PT care, health and safety, and law and ethics
(for DDS, 15 hrs)
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  1. conditional duties of an RDA: a- remove excess cement with an ultrasonic scaler from supragivgival surfaces of teeth undergoing ortho treatment b- allowable duties of an ortho assistant permitholder c- allowable duties of a dental sedation assistant permitholder d- application of pit and fissure sealants
  2. when can an RDA perform conditional duties?: only when they have complet- ed a board- approved educational program or when they can provide evidence on completing a board- approved course in the specific subject
  3. what evidence does an RDA need to provide to accompany their first license renewal (regarding conditional duties)?: evidence of completion of a board-ap- proved pit and fissure sealants course; if not, license will be suspended
  4. what duties may a DA/RDA/RDAEF perform while working for/at a primary care clinic or specialty clinic?: any extraoral duty, coronal polish, topical fluoride application, pit and fissure sealants (if course completed) when under Direct Super- vision of RDH/RDHAP
  5. dental auxillary: a person who may perform dental supportive procedures under specified supervision of a licensed DDS
  6. dental assistant: unlicensed person who may perform basic supportive proce- dures under the supervision of a DDS
  7. registered dental assistant: a licensed person who may perform all authorized procedures in addition to all basic supportive procedures a DA may perform
  8. direct supervision: supervision of dental procedures based of DDS instruction and the DDS being physically present in treatment facility during the specified procedure
  9. general supervision: supervision of dental procedures based on DDS instruc- tion but where DDS must not be physically present during time of specified proce- dure
  10. basic supportive dental procedures: dental procedures categorized by their technically elementary characteristics, complete reversibility and inability to create potentially hazardous conditions for the PT
  11. continuing education: a condition of license renewal, the submission if evi- dence of an RDA/RDH/DDS continuing to stay educated on new and improving developments in the practice of dentistry, as well as reviewing infection control procedures, dental law, and BLS
  12. how much of an RDAs contiuing education can the Board dictate?: 7.5 hrs in the general areas of PT care, health and safety, and law and ethics (for DDS, 15 hrs)
  1. how many hours of continuing education does an RDA need to complete for each renewal?: 25 hours, with 2hrs Infection Control, 2 hrs Dental Practice Act, a BLS course (no more that 4 hours)
  2. standard precautions: a group of infection control and prevention practices that apply to all PTs equally, including the use of PPE, safe handling of sharps
  3. critical vs. semi-critical vs. non-critical items: critical - penetrates bone and soft tissue, highest potential for disease transmission semi-critical - touches oral mucosa or non-intact skin but not penetrating soft tissue or bone non-critical - items used in PT care but not oral mucosa membranes, much lower risk of transmission
  4. levels of disinfection: low - kills some bacteria, microorganisms, viruses but not Tb or spores intermediate - kills Tb, but not necessarily spores high - kills Tb and some spores, but not guaranteed to kill all spores
  5. germicide: chemical agent used to disinfect items/surfaces based on level of contamination
  6. sterilization: validated process of rendering ALL viable forms of microorgan- isms inactive (kills all spores)
  7. PPE: specialized clothing or equipment used to protect against a hazard (gen- eral work attire NOT included)
  8. OPIM: other potentially infectious materials (bodily fluids form humans, testing animals, and fluid/tissue/organ potentially infected with a BBP)
  9. DHCP: dental healthcare professional - all paid or non-paid personnel in dental healthcare setting who my be occupationally exposed to infectious materials
  10. regulations regarding Infection Control Procedures: a- standard precautions practiced with all PTs b- written protocol shall be developed and made available to all employees regarding instrument processing, operatory cleanliness, and management of injuries c- a copy shall be posted in a visible spot in office d- PPE worn during all procedures involving hazardous chemicals or handling contaminated items
  11. Hand washing: a- with soap and water and start and end of day and when visibly soiled between PTs b- when not visibly soiled, an alcohol-based hand rub may be used c-hands must be thoroughly dried before putting on gloves d- DHCP with open/weeping wounds on hands will refrain from PT care, even with gloves, until it is resolved e-gloves are single use, not to be washed before or after use, discarded only
  • Basic Life Support (American Heart Assoc, American Red Cross, or course taught by provider approved by ADA) (4 units max)
  1. What does a course in Dental Practice Act cover?: - acts in violation of DPA
  • utilization and scope of practice for auxiliaries and DDS
  • laws about prescribing of meds
  • citations, fines, revocation and suspension of a license
  • license renewal
  • obligations of mandatory reporting and clinical signs of abuse
  1. What will a BLS course include?: - adult and pediatric CPR, including 2 - person scenarios
  • foreign-body airway obstruction
  • relief of choking for adult/child/infant
  • use of automated defibrillator with CPR
  • a live, in-person skills practice session, test and written exam
  1. CE courses of actual delivery of dental services may include what?: - pre- ventive services, diagnostic protocols, Tx planning
  • charting of oral conditions
  • record-keeping and informed consent protocols
  • nutrition and nutrition counseling of PT
  • esthetic, restorative and corrective dentistry
  • role of dentistry in community
  • legal ramifications of HIPPA, and of actual dental practice
  • admin of general anesthesia, conscious sedation, oral sedation, general medical emergencies
  • PPE, sterilization techniques
  • substance abuse as it relates to medical/dental care
  • PT management (behavioral science and guidance)
  • selection, incorporation and use of emerging technologies
  • legal/ethical aspects of insurance industry
  • cultural competencies (bilingual dental terminology, cross-culture communication, etc)
  1. What % of CE courses may be related to Practice Management?: 20%, as these are considered to primarily benefit the licensee, not the PT
  2. Are courses that benefit the licensee directly allowed for CE credit?: No
  • courses such as money management, general physical fitness, those political in nature, etc. are not considered beneficial to work, only the individual and cannot be used for CE
  1. Does completion of a CE course authorize the attendee to use what they have learned in practice?: NO! unless covered under scope of practice, or class results in a permit
  2. What must registered providers of CE courses maintain and present in order for the course to be valid?: - Speaker's CV
  • course content outline
  • edu objectives and outcomes
  • teaching methods utilized
  • attendee records and rosters
  • record of registration #s and units issued for each course Board may audit at any time, and if this is not available the registered provider status may be revoked/suspended
  1. How long must one retain provider records?: minimum of 3 renewal periods
  2. What should you get at the end of a CE course: written certification of course completion, which includes:
  • licensee's name and license #, provider name, 11 - dgit course reg. #, date attended, # of units earned, place for signature of verification of attendance
  1. How often are CE credits collected?: Every 2 years (2 year renewal period)
  2. How many CE credits do dental professionals need?: DDS = 50 units RDHAP = 35 units RDH/RDA/Sedation Asst/RDHEF/RDAEF/Ortho Asst = 25 units
  3. DDS w/ sedation permit requirements:: - general anesthesia: 1 advanced cardiac life support course approved by AHA
  • conscious sedation: min. of 15 units related to administration of conscious sedation, medical emergencies
  • oral conscious sedation: min. of 7 units related to admin. and medical emergencies
  1. Reasons for License Revocation or Suspension: - unprofessional conduct
  • incompetence
  • gross negligence
  • repeated acts of negligence in the profession
  • license issued by mistake
  • convicted of crime substantially related to qulifications, functions or duties of RDA (only with certified record of conviction)
  1. Who revokes/suspends license: Dental Board
  2. What is the statute of limitations for the Board to begin proceedings for license suspension/revocation?: w/in 3 years of the Board discovering act or omission, or w/in 7 years of the act or omission actually occurring - whichever occurs first
  1. What duties can a DDS ask an auxillary to perform before they see the PT?: - take x- rays
  • any extra-oral duties
  • mouth-mirror inspection of oral cavity
  1. Patient of Record: any person has been examined, has a medical and dental health history on file, and has had oral conditions diagnosed and a written treatment plan developed by the DDS (does NOT include exams at health fairs, schools, or other community events, not the application of fluoride at such events)
  2. Mandated Reporting: mus report when has knowledge of or observes child abuse, sexual abuse, elder abuse,
  3. How much time do you have to report an incident of abuse?: 36 hours from time of observation, or risk $1000 fine or up to 6 months jail time
  4. What about regarding photos/film of sexual nature?: If the child depicted in under 16 years of age and depicted in any kind of sexual manner, this must be reported
  5. Do you need to report evidence of abuse to your employer?: NO - the law only requires that you report to the correct agency; must not discuss with employer, colleges, or the caregiver or parent - mandated reporters are protected by law from being sued as long as the claim was made in good faith
  6. Can licensee's under current investigation request placement in diversion programs?: Yes, but this does not mean that any investigation or disciplinary action would halt - unless it is a controlled substances offense: in that case, all disciplinary action is stopped and sealed as long as the program is successfully completed
  7. 6 ethical principles: autonomy non- maleficence beneficence, justice veracity confidentiality
  8. PT autonomy: "self-governance"
  • PT has a right to actively participate in their treatment, and make their own decisions regarding treatment
  • PT have a right to have all records kept confidential unless they give written consent
  1. What practices does the principle of autonomy lay the groundwork for?: -
  • informed consent
  • confidentiality upholding veracity (truth)
  1. Is patient autonomy absolute?: No - a PT's right to self-determnation does not mean that the DDS must perform whatever the PT says; DDS must still uphold all laws and ethics, and has the right to refuse service if PT is asking for something he does not feel he can morally/ethically do, or should refer to a specialist
  2. Informed Consent: full explanation of treatment, rba's, alternatives,
  • this also includes when documenting abise: if DDS wants photos, impressions or x-rays to help document, he must explain to the PT what they will be used for
  1. Obligation to Inform: DDS has an obligation to tell PT their exact oral health status, so that the best and most informed course of action can be decided upon
  2. RDAs and PT Autonomy: - respect PT's right to decide own Tx
  • respect legal, personal rights, human dignity, privacy of all PTs
  • maintain professional boundaries
  • maintain confidentiality
  • DOCUMENT ALL CONVERSATIONS to have record that PT was informed and made whatever decision after knowing all options/recommendations
  1. Non-maleficence: "do no harm"
  • DDS has duty to keep from hurting a PT
  • DDS primary obligation is to keep skills and knowledge current, know one's limita- tions, know when to delegation to an auxilary
  1. What practices does the principle of non-maleficence lay the groundwork for?: - CE courses
  • referring cases to a specialist
  • unethical to practice when under the influence of a controlled substance, alcohol, or in an impaired mental or physical state
  1. Non-maleficence and BBPs: - if a DDS gets a BBP he has an ethical duty to inform any PT or staff memberwho may have been exposed, and refer them to a qualified healthcare provider who may provide post exposure services
  • DDS should encourage the source individual to cooperate in an eval, or to expose their status, but may NOT tell anyone himself
  1. RDAs and Non-maleficence: - act in best interest of PT
  • put PT health/safety first, as well as self and colleges
  • undertake assignments only when qualified to do so
  • use PPE,other protective procedures
  • CE courses
  • refuse to conceal any incompetent acts of others
  1. Beneficence: "do good"
  • duty to promote PT welfare, act to benefit of others
  • DDS owes PT competent and timely dental care, w/in the bounds of the clinical circumstances presented by the PT
  • truthful representation of fees - for PT and insurance companies
  • the basis for open doctor-patient relationships
  1. Waiver of Co-payment, overbilling, fee differential: - illegal to charge an ins. co. for services rendered and then waive the co-payment portion for the PT
  • unethical to increase a fee based on the type of ins. a PT has
  • the fee that you would charge a PT without dental benefits is the fee that must be charged for all PTs
  • may not change dates of treatment on ins. claims to maximize PT benefits
  • may not incorrectly describe the tx performed on an ins. form to receive payment for otherwise uncovered services
  • unethical to recommend unnecessary services in order to maximize benefits
  1. Unearned or non-health degrees: DDS or DHCP may list their academic degrees after their name, but may not list any non-health related, or non-academic degrees: this contributes to confusion on part of PTs, who may attribute certain skills to you that you do not have, and is a misrepresentation
  2. RDAs and Veracity: - conduct oneself with honesty and integrity
  • provide PTs with truthful assessments of problems and potential tx, including RBAs
  1. Compassion: caring and the ability to identify with the PT's over-all well-being
  2. Competence: - ability to diagnose and treat the PT's oral health care issues, or to refer when it is in the PT's best interest
  • a commitment to life-long learning (CE courses)
  1. Integrity: - behave with honor and decency
  2. What practices does the principle of integrity lay the groundwork for?: - PT confidentiality
  • not making false statements in any documents filed with ADA, CDA
  • no false advertising
  • not issuing public statements that would change the public's view of the profession, or that may be questionable in fact
  • not misrepresenting oneself by listing non-academic or non-health degrees after one's name, and may also not list licenses or certificates not to involve oneself in situations where a conflict of interest may arise
  1. Professionalism: - should actively support and promote the profession and its services to the public
  2. RDAs and professionalism: - obtain/maintain knowledge of laws, rules, regula- tions that govern dental assisting
  • comply with CA Dental Practice Act
  • reprot illegal acts of others, or violations of DPA
  1. Tolerance: addresses the continually changing cultural mix in CA/USA
  • must treat all PTs fairly and equally, but also take into account the differences in culture and what that means with regard to differences in dental care
  1. Four D's to malpractice: Duty, derelict, direct cause and damage.
  2. Torts: Wrongful act that results in injury to one person by another.
  3. Assault Battery: Threat of touching a person without consent. Battery means is the actual touching.
  4. Libel: Is a false and malicious written comments.
  5. Slander: Is false or maliciously spoken words.
  6. Good samaritan law: If for individuals who do not seek payment but render medical assistants to the injured.
  7. American with disabilities act: 1990 nationally mandates that individuals will not be discriminated against because of their disabilites.
  8. Subpoenas: Are court orders mandating that an individual show up at a specific time and date and with a specific reason reason to tesitify.
  9. Hippa: The dental office should check with HHS and ADA for hippa updates.
  10. The contract that most often exists between the dentist and pt is: Implied
  11. Hospital, clinics, physicians, dentists and alternative medicine are dis- cribed as according to hippa provisions.: Direct providers and covered entities.
  12. A dds is sued for negligence by a DA employee, even though the dentist is not guilty of the neglience act himself or heeself. This is done on the basis of the doctrine of: Respondeat superior.
  13. Preemption: Where the state laws are contrary to federal law, the federal law is to be followed.
  14. Who must comply with HIPPA?: All direct and indirect providers. Direct referred as covered entitles includes hospital, clinics, nursing, assisted living facilities, home health agencies, physicians, dentists, and alternative medicines. Indirect as business associates, includes lab, pharmacies, surgical centers and any services that deal with any pt info.
  15. Protected Health info: Any info that identifies the individual or gives a reason- able basis toward identifying the individual is PHI.