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A comprehensive study guide for the rasmussen pathophysiology final exam 2024, featuring expert-verified questions and answers. It covers key topics such as heart failure, pulmonary embolism, angina pectoris, hypertension, and shock, offering detailed rationales for each answer. The guide also includes definitions of essential terms like homeostasis, allostasis, hypokalemia, and various types of immunity and cancers. This resource is designed to help students understand complex pathophysiological concepts and prepare effectively for their exams, ensuring a solid grasp of the material through clear explanations and practical examples. It is an invaluable tool for medical students seeking to excel in their pathophysiology coursework, providing a structured approach to mastering critical concepts and enhancing exam readiness. The guide's focus on clarity and relevance makes it an essential resource for anyone looking to deepen their understanding of pathophysiology.
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1. Which of the following would be a sign of right-sided heart failure? A. Increased Urination B. Peripheral Edema ✅ (Correct Answer) C. Pulmonary Edema D. Immunosuppression Rationale: Right-sided heart failure leads to systemic congestion, causing fluid buildup in the extremities, resulting in peripheral edema. Pulmonary edema is a sign of left-sided heart failure , not right-sided. Increased urination (polyuria) is not a primary sign, and immunosuppression is not directly related to heart failure. 2. Which of the following are clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure? (Select all that apply) A. Jugular Vein Distention B. Cough with Frothy Sputum ✅ C. Crackles Auscultated in Lungs ✅ D. Dyspnea ✅ Rationale: Left-sided heart failure results in pulmonary congestion , leading to symptoms such as cough with frothy sputum , crackles auscultated in lungs , and dyspnea (shortness of breath). Jugular vein distention (JVD) is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure due to systemic fluid overload.
3. Which medications would be used to treat a patient with heart failure? A. Antibiotics and Steroids B. Vitamin D and Calcium C. Calcium Channel Blockers and Zafron D. ACE Inhibitors and Beta-Blockers ✅ (Correct Answer) Rationale: ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers are standard treatments for heart failure as they help reduce blood pressure, decrease cardiac workload, and improve survival rates. Antibiotics and steroids are not typically used for heart failure. Calcium channel blockers are used in some cardiovascular conditions but not as first-line heart failure treatment. 4. Which of the following is often the cause of pulmonary embolism? A. An autoimmune disorder B. A venous blood clot from the lower extremity ✅ (Correct Answer) C. An increase in intracranial pressure D. Hypotension Rationale: A pulmonary embolism (PE) is most often caused by a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) from the lower extremities that travels to the lungs. Autoimmune disorders and increased intracranial pressure are not common causes of PE. While hypotension can be a result of PE, it is not a cause. 5. Virchow's Triad contributes to pulmonary embolism formation. Virchow's Triad factors include all of the following except: A. Venous Blood Stasis B. Damage to the Venous Wall C. Venous Blood Hypermobility ❌ (Correct Answer) D. Increased Blood Coagulability Rationale: Virchow's Triad consists of venous stasis, endothelial (venous wall) damage, and hypercoagulability —all of which increase the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE). Hypermobility does not contribute to clot formation; rather, immobility does.
9. When arterial blood pressure declines, the cells of the kidneys secrete a hormone called ___ to increase blood pressure and peripheral resistance. A. Renin ✅ (Correct Answer) B. Antidiuretic Hormone C. Atrial Natriuretic D. Erythropoietin Rationale: The kidneys release renin in response to low blood pressure , which activates the renin- angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) to increase blood volume and vasoconstriction , raising blood pressure. Antidiuretic hormone also helps but is secreted by the pituitary gland. Which of the following are examples of complications of shock? (Select all that apply)
What is the cause of Cardiogenic Shock?
Hypokalemia is - - correct ans- - Potassium less than 3.5 mEq/L Hyperkalemia is - - correct ans- - Potassium greater than 5.5 mEq/L Hypovolemia is - - correct ans- - A decrease in blood volume throughout the body Hydrostatic Pressure - - correct ans- - The pressure within a blood vessel that tends to push the water out of the vessel Mitochondria - - correct ans- - The organelle where most of the body's ATP (Energy) is made. Innate Immunity - - correct ans- - The immunity that is present before exposure and effective from birth Antibody - - correct ans- - a substance produced by the body that destroys or inactivates an antigen that has entered the body Cytotoxic T Cells - - correct ans- - A type of lymphocyte that kills infected body cells and cancer cells Histamine - - correct ans- - A chemical mediator stored in mast cells that triggers inflammatory processes and causes itching Interstitial Fluid - - correct ans- - "Liquid between the cells and the body" Fluid from the spaces around cells. It comes from substances that leak out of blood capillaries Pathogen - - correct ans- - A disease-causing agent
Carcinoma - - correct ans- - Cancer that arose in the epithelial tissue of the skin or the lining of the internal organs Leukemia - - correct ans- - Cancer of white blood cells Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy - - correct ans- - Often an X-linked recessive disease seen more often in males A condition that causes a "Bamboo-spine" appearance that is in an inflammatory disease causing vertebrae to fuse is called what? - - correct ans- - Ankylosing Spondylitis Cellulitis - - correct ans- - Infection of the skin and soft tissues underneath Melanoma - - correct ans- - The most serious form of skin cancer. A tumor of melanin- forming cells Actinic Keratosis - - correct ans- - precancerous skin condition of horny tissue formation that results from excessive exposure to sunlight Erythema - - correct ans- - Redness of the skin (Superficial) Bullae - - correct ans- - Fluid-filled blisters Osteoarthritis - - correct ans- - progressive, degenerative joint disease with loss of articular cartilage and hypertrophy of bone at articular surfaces. Sometimes from wear and tear
Which of the following occurs with the distribution of water between interstitial and intracellular compartments? - - correct ans- - Osmosis What causes osteoarthritis and degenerative joint disease? - - correct ans- - The progressive loss of joint function to "wear and tear" How does rheumatoid Arthritis, an autoimmune condition manifest? - - correct ans- - Chronic inflammation in affected joints What is one of the properties of cancer cells? - - correct ans- - The ability to invade local tissues and overrun neighboring cells A client presents to the emergency department after sustaining burn injuries to her hands and forearms. Her skin appears red, swollen. What type of burn would this be classified as?
Osteosarcoma is one of the cancers of the bone. Which of the following describes osteosarcoma tumor? - - correct ans- - Extremely Malignant Clinical manifestations of fluid excess include which of the following? - - correct ans- - Bounding pulses and crackles in the lungs Intracellular fluid contains higher concentration of which of the following? - - correct ans- - Potassium What is the function of Mitochondria within the cells? - - correct ans- - Produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP) for energy The nurse observes redness and feels warmth in an area of cellulitis, what is the direct cause of these clinical manifestations? - - correct ans- - Increased blood flow to the area A client presents with a single fracture straight across the bone without a break in alignment. - - correct ans- - Simple transverse fracture Which of the following is true about hyponatremia? - - correct ans- - Potentially fatal due to swelling in the brain which of the following causes gout? - - correct ans- - Excessive uric acid metabolism Which of the following is an example of type ll hypersensitivity? - - correct ans- - Hemolytic disease of the newborn (Erythroblastosis Fetallis) - IgG or IgM Type 1 hypersensitivity - - correct ans- - Anaphylaxis, IgE mediated
A client has a potassium of 1.9 mEq/L. Which of the following is a potential complication of this electrolyte imbalance? - - correct ans- - Cardiac Arrhythmias Which of the following would a client experience during the alarm phase of General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) - - correct ans- - Resolution of fight-or-flight manifestations The nurse needs to explain to a colleague what defines active immunity. What would the nurse state about active immunity? - - correct ans- - Active immunity comes either from an active infection or through immunizations Which of the following topics are components of pathophysiology? - - correct ans- - Etiology, Pathogenesis, Treatment Implications, Clinical manifestation The bones serve as a reservoir for which ion/electrolyte? - - correct ans- - Calcium Fluid volume deficits may result from which of the following? - - correct ans- - Vomiting and Diarrhea A client diagnosed with heart failure reports to the healthcare provider a feeling of dizziness upon standing. - - correct ans- - A symptom What is associated with psoriatic arthritis? - - correct ans- - Psoriasis what causes osteoporosis? - - correct ans- - An imbalance of bone resorption and bone formation what chemical does the body release during a stress response? - - correct ans- - Epinephrine
fight or flight response is manifested by which of the following? - - correct ans- - Dilated pupils, increased heart rate, Increase heart pressure Which of the following effects does histamine, an inflammatory mediator, have on the body? - - correct ans- - Causes the blood vessels to dilate what is a complication of a bone fracture that causes decreased blood flow and is painful?
Which of the following can lead to an intrarenal kidney injury? - - correct ans- - Clot in the renal artery What causes a rigid abdomen in Peritonitis? - - correct ans- - Inflammation and Abdominal muscle spasm Which of the following electrolyte disorders is associated with Syndrome of Inappropriate antidiuretic hormone? - - correct ans- - Hyponatremia Which of the following causes obstructions in the renal system? - - correct ans- - Presense of a tumor and enlarged prostate A client presents to the emergency department with lower right abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and occasional diarrhea. After palpating the abdomen, the client displays rebound tenderness. What would the nurse anticipate the client is experiencing? - - correct ans- - Appendicitis Which of the following injury is associated with prerenal kidney injury? - - correct ans- - An episode of decreased blood flow to the kidneys. hemorrhage What are the clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism? - - correct ans- - Cold intolerance, constipation, weight gain, Bradycardia Which of the following may a client be at risk for it they have the human papillary virus? (HPV) - - correct ans- - Cervical Cancer Which electrolyte can cause fatal cardiac dysrhythmias for clients with chronic kidney disease? - - correct ans- - Potassium
A nurse is teaching a client about syphilis. Which information should the nurse include? - - correct ans- - Syphilis can be fatal in the tertiary stage or the disease How many stages of syphilis are there? - - correct ans- - 4 stages: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary (also known as neurosyphilis)
Which of the following is a serious potential complication of gastroesophageal reflux disorder (GERD)? - - correct ans- - Esophageal Cancer What of the following may occur with exposure to antibiotics? - - correct ans- - Diarrhea What type of incontinence is caused by an increase in intraabdominal pressure due to activities such as coughing or sneezing? - - correct ans- - Stress Which of the following does helicobacter pylori (H. Pylori) often cause - - correct ans- - Peptic Ulcer Disease Which disorder is related to breaking down fats for energy in clients with type 1 diabetes? - - correct ans- - Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) Which of the following is a classic manifestation of glomerulonephritis? - - correct ans- - Proteinuria What is most likely the cause of polyuria in renal insufficiency? - - correct ans- - Loss of tubule function Which of the following are inflammatory bowel disorders? - - correct ans- - Ulcerative Colitis and Crohns Disease Which of the following is the name of a medical emergency associated with hyperthyroidism, in which the client experiences fever, decreased levels of consciousness, and abdominal pain? - - correct ans- - Thyroid Storm (Thyrotoxicosis)
Which condition is typically caused by genetic mutation? - - correct ans- - Polycystic kidney disease What is the main purpose of dialysis for a client with kidney diease - - correct ans- - Removes excess fluid and waste. Which condition leads to an excessive amount of growth hormone (GH) being released by the pituitary gland in adulthood after epiphyseal plates of the long bones have fused. - - correct ans- - Acromegaly Gigantism - - correct ans- - abnormal growth of the entire body that is caused by excessive secretion of growth hormone before puberty - childhood The neurologic system needs two main components to function: - - correct ans- - Oxygen & Glucose What is the difference between a primary head injury and a secondary injury? - - correct ans- - Primary is main injury and secondary is due to inflammation Why is intracranial pressure (ICP) measured? - - correct ans- - Indicates pressure levels inside the cranium Deadly complication from ICP - - correct ans- - the client can have a brain herniation An epidural hematoma is dangerous due to which below - - correct ans- - An epidural hematoma is due to arterial bleeding A spinal cord injury can result in paralysis - - correct ans- - TRUE