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Exam # 1 PSY Class
Chapter 1:
1. The science of human development seeks to understand _____.
A) the meaning of life
B) the accuracy of new theories
C) the works of Freud, Piaget, and Erikson
D) how and why people change over time
2. Empirical evidence is based on _____.
A) theories and speculation
B) observation, experience, or experiment
C) inferences based on personal biases
D) opinions generated by focus groups
3. A hypothesis is a(n) _____.
A) experiment
B) prediction that can be tested
C) conclusion drawn from research
D) replication of a scientific study
4. Replication involves _____.
A) the repetition of a study using different participants
B) the repetition of a study using the same participants
C) designing a new study based on information from a previous study
D) designing a new study using new ideas and information
5. In the science of human development, nature refers to _____.
A) the influence of the genes that people inherit
B) environmental influences
C) patterns of development
D) developmental differences
6. In the science of human development, nurture refers to _____ traits.
A) hereditary
B) genetic
C) environmental
D) unique
7. Most developmental psychologists believe that development is the result of _____.
A) nature and nurture acting separately
B) genetic traits
C) nature and nurture acting together
D) environmental influences
8. _____ studies the many ways in which the environment alters gene expression.
A) Differential susceptibility
B) Ethology
C) Epigenetics
D) The nature–nurture debate
9. The life-span perspective takes into account development from _____.
A) birth to death
B) childhood to middle age
C) birth to adolescence
D) conception to death
10. Socioeconomic status refers to an individual's _____.
A) culture
B) ethnicity
C) social class
D) race
4. Psychoanalytic theory, behaviorism, and cognitive theory are considered “grand” because
they are _____.
A) comprehensive, enduring, and widely applied
B) comprehensive, well developed, and universally correct
C) enduring, widely applied, and universally correct
D) comprehensive, widely applied, and unchallenged
5. Unlike Freud, Erikson _____.
A) only described development in childhood
B) believed that adult problems reflect childhood conflicts
C) emphasized family and culture in his stages
D) leaned toward the behaviorist perspective
6. Any consequence that follows a behavior and makes a person likely to repeat that behavior
is called a(n) “_____.
A) punishment”
B) condition
C) reinforcement
D) observation
7. Social learning theory indicates that learning occurs from _____.
A) the association between one stimulus and another
B) past reinforcement
C) observing and imitating others
D) responding to a particular stimulus
8. Observational learning is also called “_____.”
A) classical conditioning
B) operant conditioning
C) modeling
D) cognition
9. The foundation of cognitive theory is _____.
A) observable behaviors
B) inner drives and motives
C) a person's thoughts and expectations
D) cultural influence
10. _____ is a perspective that compares a human's thinking processes, by analogy, to a
computer's analysis of data.
A) Social learning theory
B) Information-processing theory
C) Behaviorism
D) Psychoanalytic theory
11. Neuroscientists have discovered that the _____ is not completely connected to the rest of
the brain until about age 25.
A) hippocampus
B) prefrontal cortex
C) amygdala
D) brain stem
12. Which cognitive theorist emphasized the cultural context?
A) Piaget
B) Vygotsky
C) Maslow
D) Erikson
D) 20 pairs of
2. A small section of a chromosome that is the basic unit for the transmission of heredity is a _____. A) chromosome B) gene C) genotype D) zygote 3. The name of the full set of genes that provides the instructions for making living organisms is the _____. A) phenotype B) genotype C) genome D) allele 4. Humans have 23 pairs of _____, which contain the instructions to make the proteins needed for life and growth. A) chromosomes B) alleles C) genotypes D) zygotes 5. On the 23rd pair of chromosomes, males have _____. A) two X chromosomes B) two Y chromosomes C) an X chromosome and a Y chromosome D) just a Y chromosome 6. On the 23rd pair of chromosomes, females have _____. A) two X chromosomes B) two Y chromosomes C) an X chromosome and a Y chromosome
D) just a Y chromosome
7. _____ cells are able to produce any other cells. A) Polymorphic B) Foundation C) Stem D) Allele 8. Identical twins are also called _____ twins. A) monozygotic B) dizygotic C) zygotic D) gamete 9. Fraternal twins are also called _____ twins. A) monozygotic B) dizygotic C) zygotic D) gamete 10. An individual's phenotype describes all the following EXCEPT an individual's _____. A) genetic inheritance B) appearance C) personality D) intelligence 11. Epigenetics means that a trait _____. A) is determined by genes alone B) is determined by the environment alone C) is determined by genes and the environment D) is determined by genes more than the environment
2. During the germinal period, the first task of the zygote's outer cells is _____. A) differentiation B) duplication C) germination D) implantation 3. About a week after conception, the outer layer of the multiplying cells forms a protective circle, or shell, that will become the _____. A) placenta B) umbilical cord C) vernix D) infant 4. During the embryonic period, the neural tube will become the _____. A) reproductive organs B) intestinal tract C) backbone, legs, and arms D) central nervous system, brain, and spinal cord 5. Growth occurs in a _____ pattern, which means “head-to-tail.” A) proximodistal B) cephalocaudal C) neurogenesis D) synaptogenesis 6. The longest period of prenatal development is the _____ period. A) embryonic B) fetal C) proximodistal D) germinal
7. At around 38 weeks after conception, the _____ starts the sequence of events that prepares the fetus for delivery and starts labor. A) fetal brain B) maternal brain C) placenta D) amniotic sac 8. With respect to prenatal development, teratogens _____ prenatal abnormalities. A) increase the risk of B) decrease the risk of C) always cause D) do not cause 9. Drugs, viruses, pollutants, malnutrition, and stress during pregnancy are referred to as “______.” A) threshold effects B) risk factors C) teratogens D) vulnerability factors 10. Postpartum depression _____. A) is a normal development and no cause for concern B) has no treatment C) does not typically interfere with the care of a newborn D) can be mitigated by successful breast-feeding 11. Julia had a baby three weeks ago. She has been feeling sad and inadequate as a mother, which has made caring for her newborn difficult. Julia may be experiencing _____. A) post-traumatic stress disorder B) postpartum depression C) generalized anxiety disorder
C) 20
D) 25
2. The average newborn triples his or her weight by _____. A) 6 months B) 1 year C) 1.5 years D) 2 years 3. Children reach half their adult height by about the age of _____ years. A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 4. _____ is a condition that may be caused by poor nutrition, allergies, the microbiome, or other medical conditions. A) Dwarfism B) Obesity C) Failure to thrive D) Head-sparing 5. The signs of REM sleep include flickering of the infant's _____. A) open eyes and rapid brain waves B) closed eyes and rapid brain waves C) open eyes and slow, steady brain waves D) closed eyes and slow, steady brain waves 6. The human body is equipped to protect the brain when malnutrition temporarily affects body growth. This protective feature is known as “_____.”
A) the blood-brain barrier B) brain-override C) head-sparing D) caudal protection
7. The central nervous system includes the ____ and _____. A) spinal cord; heart B) brain; lungs C) prefrontal cortex; heart D) brain; spinal cord 8. A basic nerve cell in the central nervous system is called a(n) “_____.” A) frontal cell B) axon C) dendrite D) neuron 9. Synapses are _____. A) intersections where the axons of one neuron meet the dendrites of another neuron B) where neurons make direct contact with one another C) chemical structures that allow dendrites to send their messages to axons D) the area where neurons determine whether a stimulus exceeds the absolute threshold or not 10. The function of neurotransmitters is to _____. A) bind the neurons of the central nervous system together B) form the synapse between neurons C) carry information from one neuron to another D) assist in the formation of new neurons
C) sensation D) response
17. Gross motor skills are _____. A) head motions B) small movements C) large movements D) feet motions 18. What three factors contribute to the ability to walk? A) muscle strength, parental teaching, practice B) brain maturation, parental teaching, muscle strength C) parental teaching, practice, brain maturation D) muscle strength, brain maturation, practice. 19. Fine motor skills are those that _____. A) develop as a result of brain damage B) require practice C) require small body movements D) use three or more muscles 20. Breast milk _____. A) is deficient in iron and vitamin C B) is more likely than formula to produce allergies C) provides antibodies to fight diseases D) upsets the baby's digestive system more than formula
Chapter 6 Study Guide
1. Piaget called an infant's first period of cognitive development “_____.” A) sensorimotor intelligence
B) adaptation C) object awareness D) imitative learning
2. Infants in the sensorimotor stage _____. A) learn to use language to express sensations B) think of past and future events C) use senses and motor skills to understand the world D) think logically and critically 3. _____ is the understanding that objects continue to exist when they cannot be seen. A) Object permanence B) Acquired adaptation C) Mental representation D) Object continuity 4. Piaget referred to toddlers in sensorimotor stage five as _____. A) little heathens B) tertiary infants C) little scientists D) blank slates 5. Information-processing theory asserts that development _____, and Piaget's theory asserts that development _____. A) occurs in stages; occurs in stages B) occurs in stages; occurs daily C) occurs daily; occurs in stages D) occurs daily; occurs daily 6. The environment offers many opportunities to interact with whatever is perceived. These opportunities are known as “_____.” A) affordances B) cognitions C) habituations
12. According to the social-pragmatic theory, infants communicate because _____. A) humans are social beings B) babies want tangible rewards C) babies are hardwired to acquire language D) all primates are driven to master words and grammar 13. According to the sociocultural perspective, what is the focus of early communication for infants younger than 12 months? A) context B) content C) emotion D) sound 14. The American Association of Pediatricians suggests no screen time for children under age ____. A) 2 B) 4 C) 5 D) 7
Ch. 7 Study Guide
1. Which of the following emotions is the last to develop in an infant? A) fear of strangers B) anger C) pride D) curiosity 2. An infant's anger is usually triggered by _____. A) sadness B) fear C) frustration D) shame
3. Increased levels of cortisol are associated with an infant experiencing _____. A) sadness B) anger C) well-being D) secure attachment 4. Separation anxiety and stranger wariness are two kinds of ____ in infancy and toddlerhood. A) sadness B) anger C) fear D) regulatory strategies 5. When a baby acts upset because a caregiver is leaving, the baby is exhibiting _____. A) general anxiety B) separation anxiety C) solitary fear D) fear of isolation 6. An infant's distress at seeing an unfamiliar person is called “_____.” A) stranger wariness B) extrafamilial fear C) fear of the unknown D) separation anxiety 7. If separation anxiety remains intense after age 3, impairing a child's ability to leave home, go to school, or play with other children, it is considered a(n) ______. A) red flag for maltreatment B) normative, as anxiety is common up until the age of 7 C) emotional disorder D) indication of severe cognitive impairment 8. Research has found that a person's temperament is _____. A) highly variable from one country to the next
