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PSW 101 NACC Reviewer 2022 Verified Questions and Answers, Exams of Health sciences

PSW 101 NACC Reviewer 2022 Verified Questions and Answers

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PSW 101 NACC Reviewer 2022 Questions and Answers
PSW 101 NACC Reviewer 2022 Questions and Answers
PSW 101 NACC Reviewer 2022 Questions and Answers
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PSW 101 NACC Reviewer 2022 Questions and Answers

  1. Professionalism is a. An approach to work used only by members of regulated professions b. An approach to work that demonstrates respect for others, commitment, competence, and appropriate behaviour c. A commitment made by regulated professionals d. Another term for confidentiality
  2. What type of service aims to provide a temporary break to family caregivers a. Acute-care services (FOR SUDDEN ILLNESS, services given in the HOSPITAL) b. Palliative care (END- OF-LIFE CARE) c. Respite services d. Outpatient services
  3. The most pressing cause of health care reform has been a. Rising costs of providing technology, drugs and services b. The depression c. Lack of available technology d. Lack of accessibility
  4. Which of the following is a benefit to the team approach to health care? a. Opportunities for confidentiality b. Opportunities for delegation c. Opportunities for collaboration d. Opportunities for assignment of tasks
  5. A graphic sheet a. Records a client's activities of daily living (ADL's) (FLOW SHEET) b. Is used to record measurements and observations made three to four times per day c. Contains information about the care given, the client responses to care, and observations about the client's condition (PROGRESS NOTES) d. Summarizes a client's care and services over a period of time (KARDEX)
  1. minimizing problems – avoid making comments like these: “Everything will be fine,” “Don’t worry—it’s really not that bad,” “Look on the bright side,” and “It could be worse.”
  2. using Patronizing Language
    • Do not address clients as “sweetie,” “dude,” “gramps,” “love,” “dear,” “honey,” or any other term of endearment (or “sweet talk”).
  3. The membership of a health care team is determined by a. The client's needs b. The RN'S needs c. The physician's needs d. The needs of the client's family
  4. People with dysarthria a. Make unpredictable speech errors b. Understand what is said c. Can control the muscles used to speak d. Cannot read or write
  5. Which statement will promote communication? a. Don't worry b. Everything will be just fine c. This is a good facility d. Why are you crying? (OPEN ENDED QUESTION) Answers a, b, c is minimizing the problem
  6. Home management duties include a. Personal care and hygiene tasks c. Light housekeeping tasks b. Organizing the garage d. Cleaning the attic PSW SCOPE OF RESPONSIBILITIES / PRACTICE PSASHD P – personal care S – support the health care team A – assist the family S – social support H – home management D – document
  7. Respecting personal preferences is an example of a. Autonomy b. Justice c. Beneficence d. Nonmaleficence PRINCIPLES OF HEALTH CARE ETHICS AUTONOMY – (self-determination); freedom of choice / to make decisions JUSTICE – people should be treated in a fair and equal manner

BENEFICENCE – doing or promoting good NON MALEFICENCE – doing no harm

  1. An acute illness a. Appears suddenly and lasts a short time b. Is a slow, progressive illness (CHRONIC ILLNESS) c. Results in disability (CHRONIC ILLNESS) d. People usually recover (can be an answer but choice a is the best answer)
  2. Which member of the rehabilitation team evaluates a client's strength and balance a. The physiotherapist b. The occupational therapist (teach ct. relearn ADLs and order adaptive devices) c. The primary care giver (usually a family member) d. The nurse (in- charge of meeting ct.’s overall needs/ develops care plan; supervisor)
  3. Residents in retirement facilities generally include a. People with mental illness b. Young adults with physical or other disabilities c. Frail, older adults with multiple health problems d. Older adults with limited care needs
  4. In 24-hour time, 1330 is a. 3:30 pm b. 3:30 am c. 1:30 pm d. 1:30 am
  5. Which Law ensures that every citizen has access to health care? a. The long-term care facilities act c. The Canada health act b. The Medical care act d. The hospital insurance and diagnostic services act THE CANADA HEALTH ACT follows the following principles: (CUPAP)
    • C omprehensiveness, U niversality, P ortability, A ccessibility, P ublic Administration
  6. Which of the following is not true of chronic illness? a. It is a slow progressive illness (CHRONIC ILLNESS) b. The symptoms often appear gradually (CHRONIC ILLNESS) c. It may result in physical or mental disability (CHRONIC ILLNESS) d. People usually recover (ACUTE ILLNESS)
  7. A holistic approach to health is one that a. Takes a realistic view of a person's health problems b. Takes into account the whole person c. Focuses on the person's illness or disability d. Focuses on the person's physical health HOLISM – SPECS ( S piritual, P hysical, E motional, C ognitive, S ocial)

c. Often have problems relating to family and friends d. Cannot improve their communication

  1. What is the abbreviation for "at once, immediately"? a. AOI b. STAT c. SAT d. STATS
  2. Focusing is a useful communication tool when a. A person is rambling c. You want to make sure you understand the message b. You want the person to share thoughts and feelings d. You need information
  3. Which does not influence a person's reaction to a stressor? a. Past experiences with the same stressor c. The person's sex b. The number of stressors present d. The person's temperament or personality
  4. Which work setting may provide acute care? a. Home care c. Long term care facilities b. Assisted living facilities d. Hospitals
  5. Which is false? a. Verbal communication involves the spoken word b. Verbal communication is the truest reflexion of a person's feelings c. Messages can be sent by facial expressions, gestures, posture, body movements, appearance, and eye contact d. Touch means different things to different people
  6. The provincial human rights codes do not promote a. Freedom from discrimination and harassment b. Equal treatment with respect to services and facilities c. The right to vote d. Equal treatment with respect to age, sex, and ethnicity
  7. Which of the following statement about negligence is false? a. It is an unintentional tort b. The negligent person did not act in a reasonable manner c. Harm was caused to a person or a person's property d. A prison term is likely
  8. Goals should be SMART. What does SMART stand for? a. Simple, monthly allowable, reasonable, timely b. Specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, timely c. Simple, measurable, achievable, reasonable, topical d. Specific, monthly, allowable, realistic, topical
  1. Which statement about the Canadian charter of rights and freedoms is false? a. It is part of the Canadian constitution b. It does not apply at a provincial level c. It protects Canadian’s right to equality before and under the law d. It protects Canadian's right to freedom and expression
  2. Mrs. Muyama says, " I didn't sleep at all last night because of the pain in my back". This is a. A nursing diagnosis b. Subjective data c. An intervention d. Objective data ADDITIONAL NOTES: STEPS IN NURSING PROCESS (ANPIE) 1. Assessment – gathering of data Subjective – what the client tells you Objective – what you see, hear, smell, feel; observing through the senses 2. Nursing Diagnosis – identification of a nursing problem which can be solved by nursing measures 3. Planning – setting goals and priorities; develop care plan CARE PLAN – written guide about client care; before you do anything to your client, check the care plan first
  3. Implementation – putting plans into action (PSW job) 5. Evaluation – assessing/measuring client’s response to care DIAGNOSIS – the identification of a health problem PROGNOSIS – the expected course of recovery based on the usual outcome of the illness.
  4. Medial refers to a. The part nearest to the centre of point of origin b. Relating to or located at the side of the body or body part c. Relating to or located at or near the middle or the midline of the body or body part d. Relating to or located at the side of the body or body part
  5. The statement "urinary elimination, impaired" is on a care plan. This statement is a. Nursing diagnosis b. Assessment c. Evaluation d. Medical diagnosis MEDICAL DIAGNOSIS – identification of a disease or condition by a doctor or nurse practitioner
  6. The word distal refers to a. The part nearest to the center or point of origin (PROXIMAL) b. The part farthest from the centre or point of origin c. Located at or toward the back of the body or body part (DORSAL / POSTERIOR) d. Relating to or located at or near the middle or the midline of the body or body part Choice d means MEDIAL
  7. In a community setting, who usually assesses, monitors, and evaluates a client's needs and coordinates the services of the health care in a community team. a. The family physician c. The case manager b. The occupational therapist d. The social worker

ADDITIONAL NOTES:

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

  1. physical / physiological – food, water, shelter, air, elimination, sex, exercise – needs in order to survive)
  2. safety – becomes a priority when a client has movement problems
  3. love and belongingness – needed by clients in isolation
  4. self-esteem – self-confidence; promote client’s independence to enhance self-esteem
  5. self-actualization – purpose in life, morals; the need that is seldom met
  6. Which is false? a. Prejudice is an attitude that judges people based on their group membership b. In some cases, prejudice is acceptable c. Prejudice frequently leads to discrimination d. Stereotypes are often associated with prejudice ADDITIONAL NOTES: CULTURE - the characteristics of a group of people STEREOTYPE – overly simple view of a group people STIGMA – shame or social disgrace DISCRIMINATION – unfair treatment
  7. Your client in the home you work in asks for your home phone number. You should: a. Give her your cellphone number only. b. Give your supervisor's cellphone number so she can deal with the issue. c. Explain that you cannot give your phone number out to clients. (PROFESSIONALISM) d. Ignore her and ask the nurse to give her a sedative.
  8. You find your unsteady patient on the ground, shaken and in pain. The documentation you would provide in this case is: a. A flowsheet b. A graphic sheet c. An incident report d. A living will ADDITIONAL NOTES: Task sheets – used in community settings to record care and services provided Care Plan – used in facility settings; contains the goals and intervention; action plan Progress notes (narrative notes) – record information about the care given, the client’s response to care, observations, the client’s activities, special treatments, and medications. Progress notes also contain areas to record date, time, and initials Graphic sheets – record measurements and observations made on every shift, or three to four times per day; includes Vital signs (TPR BP), height and weight Flow Sheets - record frequent measurements and observations; example VS every 15 minutes; record intake and output; used to monitor the conditions of clients with serious illnesses. Summary reports – summarize care and service provided over a period of time. Incident reports – are written accounts made after an accident, error, or unexpected event. In the community, are called occurrence reports

Kardex – summarized version or abbreviated form of the chart Chart – a permanent and legal document required to record a client’s condition, signs and symptoms of any illness, the care and treatment given to the client, and the client’s responses to care The Goal of Support Work : Improved Quality of Life Through Client-Centred Care Client-centred care (compassionate or person-centred care) or caring means having concern for the dignity, independence, preferences, privacy, and safety of clients THE PRINCIPLES OF COMPASSIONATE CARE (DIPPS ) D ignity – a state of feeling worthy, valued, and respected I ndependence – clients to do what they can for themselves I ndividualized Care – personalized care as every individual is unique P rivacy – protect the client’s body and information from the public P references – allow client to make choices/decisions S afety – protect client from harm / injury

MOD 2 Safety and Mobility

  1. Which of the following is not a sign of infection a. Fever, nausea, vomiting, rash and/or sores b. Pain or tenderness, redness, and/or swelling c. Fatigue, loss of appetite, and/or change in behaviour d. Bleeding ADDITIONAL NOTES INFECTION – microbes/germs/pathogens enters the body and cause a disease Chain of lnfection
  2. Pathogen - cause
  3. Reservoir - environment
  4. Portal of exit - where microbes
  5. Mode of transmission - spread
  6. Portal of entry - where m
  7. Susceptible host - the next person to get infected 2 Types of lnfection a. local infection – involves a specific body part b. systemic – involves the whole body Modes of Infection Transmission (how it is spread)
  8. Droplet – through the air in short distances e.g: Covid, flu/common colds
  9. Airborne – through the air in long distances e.g: tuberculosis
  10. Contact transmission a. direct contact with the client {skin-to-skin contact/physical} b. indirect contact (contaminated contact with surfaces or care items)
  11. Vector - borne - lnfected insects/animals
  12. Vehicle - borne - contaminated food/drinks Health care-associated infection {HAl} – also known as nosocomial infections A. Common HAI infections are: RUGS (respiratory, urinary, gastrointestinal, skin)
  1. A single-tip cane is used a. At waist level b. On the strong side c. On the weak side d. On either side

REMEMBER: TSAW T RANSFER – S trong side of client is used, PSW also places self on strong side of client A MBULATION – W eak side (PSW on the weak side, strong side to hold assistive devices)

  1. The rehabilitation process addresses a. What the person can not do b. Only physical health c. The whole person d. Only emotional health
  2. Standard precautions a. Are used for all clients b. Prevent the spread of airborne pathogens c. Involve surgical asepsis (STERILE TECHNIQUE – kill all microbes and their spores) d. Are not necessary for children and older clients
  3. Mrs. Kwon had mitt restraints. Which of these is especially important to report to the nurse? a. Her heart rate b. Her respiratory rate c. Why the restraints were applied d. If you felt a pulse in the restrained extremities
  4. What is the most common accident in all settings? a. Burns b. Suffocations c. Falls d. Poisoning
  5. A client's skin rubs against the sheet. This is called a. Shearing b. Friction c. Transferring d. Posture

COMMON SKIN INJURY IN OLDER ADULTS – skin tear (a break / rip on the skin)

  1. Bed rails are raised when a. The person tries to get up without assistance b. Your supervisor and care plan tells you to raise them c. The person has a seizure d. The person is restrained

BEDRAILS are environmental restraints; Restraints need a doctor’s order and should be on the care plan.

  1. Mrs. Carrera always tries to get up without help. You should do the following except a. Remind her to call for assistance b. Check on her often c. Help her to the bathroom at regular intervals d. Decide on your own to keep bedrails up
  2. The following statements are about lying infants down to sleep. Which is false? a. Lay them on their backs b. Place pillows under their heads c. Make sure they are not overheated d. Remove soft toys and bedding from the crib

NO pillows, stuffed toys, blankets, quilts – can cause infant suffocation

  1. Flexion involves a. Bending the body part c. Straightening the body part b. Moving the body part toward the body d. Moving the body part away from the body

ADDITIONAL NOTES: Extension – straightening a body part Hyperextension – excessive straightening of a body part Adduction – moving the body part toward the body Abduction – moving the body part away from the body

  1. To prevent falls, you should do the following except a. Wipe up spills right away c. Turn on night lights b. Encourage the use of handrails and grab bars d. Keep the bed in the highest position

SAFETY TIPS before leaving client’s room – remember CASHD C – call bell should be within client’s reach, on the strong side A – adjust the bed to lowest position S – siderails up if with Dr.’s order H – hand hygiene D - document

  1. Rehabilitation is often slower for a. Toddlers b. Adolescents c. middle-aged adults d. Older adults
  2. Gloves are worn when in contact with the following except a. Blood b. Body fluids c. Sweat d. Secretions and excretions

TENDONS – connect muscles to bones LIGAMENTS – connect bones to bones JOINTS – point at which two or more bones meet; you do exercise on the joints without causing pain (exercise is one if written on the care plan) CARTILAGE – connective tissue at the end of the bones which cushions the bones; prevents bone from rubbing each other with movement

  1. Which statement about ambulation is false a. A transfer belt is used if the client is weak or unsteady b. The client can shuffle or slide when beginning to walk after bed rest c. Walking aids may be needed d. Crutches, canes, walkers, and braces are common walking aids
  2. A fire alarm sounds; which of the following is unsafe a. Turning off oxygen c, Moving clients to a safe place b. Using elevators for a quick exit d. Closing doors and windows

Remember RACE – R escue or remove; A for alarm; Contain the fire /prevent spread of the fire; E xtinguish if you know how to use fire extinguishers or E vacuate In case of fire, DO NOT use elevators

  1. Support workers are at great risk for a. Friction and shearing c. Arm and hand injuries b. Back injuries d. Falls

BODY MECHANICS – moving the body and a careful and efficient way When lifting, use the large muscles of the legs; bend on your knees and squat; hold the object close to you, face the area you are working. The small muscles of the lower back are commonly affected if not using proper body mechanics.

  1. Mr. Graziano needs rehabilitation after his right side is paralyzed. Personal care is a. Done by him to the extent possible c. Done by you b. Postponed until he can use his right side d. Supervised by his physician

Promote INDEPENDENCE as much as possible.

  1. When transferring a client to bed, a chair or toilet a. The client's strong side moves first c. The week side moves first b. Pillows are used for support d. The transfer belt can't be used
  2. Who is responsible for protecting employees from injuries and accidents in the workplace? a. Occupational Health and Safety Act c. Material Safety Data Sheet b. Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System d. Ontario Ministry of Health
  1. All of the following are steps you should do when using a fire extinguisher, EXCEPT: a. Pull the Pin Out b. Aim at the base of the fire c. Squeeze the handle d. Open the canister

When using fire extinguisher, remember PASS (Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep)

  1. Which of the following is a HINGE joint? a. Shoulder b. Hips c. Skull d. Elbow

TYPES OF JOINT

1. Ball and Socket Joint – moves in all directions 2. Hinge Joint – moves in one direction 3. Pivot Joint – moves side to side

  1. "Trochanter rolls" are used for: a. A special bread is served to diabetic patients. b. Preventing the abdomen and arms from turning outward. c. Preventing the hips and legs from turning outward. d. A special bread is served to people with congestive heart failure
  2. Dorsal Recumbent Position is also known as: a. Prone Position c. Semi-Fowler's Position b. Supine Position d. Fowler's Position
  3. In Trendelenburg Position: a. The head of the bed is on a 90-degree angle. b. The head of the bed is on a 45-degree angle. c. The foot of the bed is higher than the head of the bed. d. The bed is completely flat.
  4. Post-operatively following hip surgery, your patient's position should be changed: a. Every shift b. Every 2 hours c. Every 3 hours d. Every 4 hours
  5. Your patient is "ambulating." This means: a. He is getting transferred to another facility via ambulance. b. He is walking. c. He is in a wheelchair. d. He is sitting on a walker.
  1. A person who is able to transfer a pathogen to others without getting an active infection himself is: a. A carrier b. A sender c. A receiver d. A messenger
  2. A "pathogen”: a. It is a Disease-causing microbe. c. It is an allergy. b. Refers to the cell after it is swollen with water. d. A substance that all human bodies need.
  3. How can spores be destroyed? a. Cleaning b. Disinfection c. Sterilization d. Scrubbing

STERILIZATION in home care / community is done by boiling; in facilities done using AUTOCLAVE (steam under pressure)

  1. Mrs. White has bitten off her intravenous line and has fallen several times out of bed. The nurse gives her a sedative. What kind of restraint is this? a. Environmental Restraint c. Physical Restraint b. Chemical Restraint d. Medical Restraint

PHYSICAL Restraint – attached to the body ENVIRONMENTAL Restraint – surrounds the body CHEMICAL Restraint – use of medications

  1. The environment where the pathogen lives before it infects a person is: a. A portal of entry b. A portal of exit c. A Reservoir d. A pandemic

MOD 3 Body Structure and Function

  1. Which carry blood away from the heart? a. Capillaries b. Veins c. Venules d. Arteries

VEINS – blood vessels that carry unoxygenated blood to the heart CAPILLARIES – smallest blood vessel that connects arteries and veins, where actual exchange of gases occur AORTA – biggest artery that carries oxygenated blood into the body RIGHT SIDE of the heart (Unoxygenated blood) a. right atrium – receives unoxygenated blood from the body b. right ventricle – pumps unoxygenated blood to the lungs LEFT SIDE of the heart (Oxygenated blood) a. left atrium – receives oxygenated blood from the lungs b. left ventricle – pumps oxygenated blood to the aorta then to the whole body

  1. In older adults, arteries loose their elasticity and become narrow. This changes result in a. A slower heart rate b. Lower blood pressure c. Poor circulation to many body parts d. Less blood in the body
  2. The basic unit of body structure is? a. Cell b. Neuron c. Nephron d. Ovum

NEURON – means nerve NEPHRON – functional unit of the kidneys, where urine is filtered OVUM – is the female egg cell

  1. The highest functions of the brain take place in the a. Cerebral cortex b. Medulla c. Brain stem d. Spinal nerves

3 Major Structures of the **Brainstem (connects brain and spinal cord)

  1. Midbrain** – centers for vision and hearing 2) Pons – control center for breathing 3) Medulla Oblongata – control center for HR, RR, blood vessel size, BP, swallowing, coughing, and vomiting 3 LAYERS COVERING THE BRAIN (DAP) D – dura mater A – arachnoid P – pia mater PARTS OF THE BRAIN CEREBRUM – center of thought / intelligence and higher brain functions CEREBRAL CORTEX – outermost layer of the cerebrum CEREBELLUM – for balance / equilibrium; fine motor movements BRAINSTEM – connects the cerebrum to the spinal cord
  1. The outer layer of the skin is called the a. Dermis b. Epidermis c. Integument d. Myelin

Dermis – inner layer Integument – means the skin Myelin – nerve covering

  1. Most food absorption takes place in the? a. Stomach b. Small intestine c. Colon d. Large intestine

Stomach – where physical digestion of food occurs Colon – is the large intestine; absorbs water from undigested food materials