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One-Minute Nurse: Dysrhythmia Quiz Answers 1 A patient has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. What class of medications is expected to be prescribed? Your Response: Anticoagulants Rationale: Anticoagulants are expected to be prescribed for a patient with atrial fibrillation to prevent blood pooling in the ventricles and causing clots, which can lead to pulmonary embolism or stroke. Anticholinergics, proton pump inhibitors and histamine blockers are indicated for gastroesophageal reflux disease. 2 What is the best way to treat sinus tachycardia? Your Response: Treat the underlying cause. Rationale: The best way to treat sinus tachycardia is to treat the underlying cause. Beta blockers may be needed to do this and deep breathing could help, but addressing the underlying cause will solve the problem. Cardioversion is not indicated for sinus tachycardia. 3 Which are causes of bradycardia? Select all that apply. Your Response: Sleeping, Vagal nerve stimulation, Spinal cord injury Rationale: Causes of bradycardia include sleeping, vagal nerve stimulation, and spinal cord injury. Infection and fever typically cause tachycardia. 4 What is the drug of choice to treat supra-ventricular tachycardia (SVT)? Your Response: Adenosine Rationale: The goal for treating SVT is to break or slow down the heart rate; adenosine will accomplish this. Atenolol is a beta blocker, amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, and atropine is indicated for bradycardia. 5 What is the priority intervention for a patient in ventricular fibrillation? Correct Response: Defibrillation Rationale: Think "V-fib = defib." Cardioversion is done when the patient is unstable with a pulse. Action is required for ventricular fibrillation beyond monitoring. Notifying the family is not the priority.
2023 One-Minute Quiz: Fever Quiz Answers 1 What temperature would be considered a fever in an adult? Your Response: 100.2°F (37.9°C) Rationale: A temperature over 99.5°F (37.5°C) is considered a fever in an adult. 2 Which medication is used to treat the symptoms of a fever? Your Response: Acetaminophen Rationale: Acetaminophen is an antipyretic used to lower fevers and help manage symptoms. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine. Guaifenesin is an expectorant, and amoxicillin is an antibiotic. Antibiotics may be used to treat the infection causing the fever, but it will not treat the fever symptoms. 3 What is true of older adults and fevers? Your Response: Older adults are less likely to spike a fever, even with a serious infection. Rationale: Older adults are less likely to spike a fever due to lower baseline body temperatures. They do not have different symptoms or spike lower fevers. 4 Which is a preferred nonpharmacologic method to treat a fever? Your Response: Cooling blankets Rationale: Cooling blankets, ice packs, and cool sponge baths can assist in lowering a temperature. Heat is not recommended. 5 A patient has a temperature of 106°F (41°C). What does this mean? Your Response: This is a medical emergency. Rationale: A fever of 106°F (41°C) is a medical emergency and needs to be addressed immediately. Within 24 hours is too delayed, they need intervention, and a fever that high does not indicate recovery.
2024 One-Minute Quiz: APGAR Quiz Answers 1 When is an APGAR score assessed? Your Response: At 1 minute and 5 minutes Rationale: An APGAR score is assessed on every newborn at minutes 1 and 5 to evaluate their physiologic status. 2 At minute 5, a newborn’s APGAR score is 6. What will the nurse include in the plan of care? Your Response: Additional APGAR assessment at 10 minutes Rationale: If the APGAR score is lower than 7 at minute 5, an additional APGAR score needs to be measured at minute 10 to assess for any distress. 3 A nurse assesses the APGAR score of a newborn at 1 minute. Here are the results: Acrocyanosis noted, trunk normal color Heart rate 97 beats per minute Frowns when irritated Some flexion with limited extension Respiratory rate 32 breaths per minute with good cry What is the newborn’s APGAR score? Correct Response: 6 Rationale: This newborn’s APGAR score is 6 based on the following: Appearance=1, Pulse=1, Grimace=1 Activity=1, Respiration=2. 4 A new nurse is unsure of a newborn’s 1-minute APGAR score. What is the best course of action for the new nurse? Your Response: Request additional assistance to accurately assess the newborn Rationale: The nurse should always request assistance when they are unsure of assessment findings. If there is any doubt in the findings, the nurse should not assume they are correct because this could delay care if interventions are required. 5 Which is not part of the APGAR score? Your Response: Weight
2024 One-Minute Quiz: NewbornInfantGrowth Quiz Answers 1 Which is the most appropriate toy for a 12-month-old child? Correct Response: Push-pull toy Rationale: A 12-month-old child will typically be learning to walk, and the push-pull toy will assist with this process. A rattle is appropriate for a 3-month-old. Soft, brightly colored toys and unbreakable mirrors are appropriate for an infant. 2 In which category of Erikson’s developmental stages is an infant? Your Response: Trust versus mistrust Rationale: Based on Erikson’s eight stages of psychosocial development, the developmental stage of trust versus mistrust occurs from birth to 1 year of age. The toddler is going through the stage of autonomy versus shame and doubt, the preschooler is going through the stage of initiative versus guilt, and older adults are going through the stage of integrity versus despair. 3 What is the expected weight for the 12-month-old child? Your Response: Triple their birth weight Rationale: The 12-month-old child is expected to weigh triple their birth weight. 4 At what age is the infant expected to begin to exhibit stranger anxiety? Correct Response: 8 months Rationale: The infant is expected to exhibit stranger anxiety around 8 months of age; this typically begins around 7– 9 months of age. 5 At what age does the Moro reflex disappear? Correct Response: 4 months Rationale: The Moro reflex disappears at 4 months of age.
2024 One-Minute Quiz: Cerebral Palsy Quiz Answers 1 Which medications would most likely be prescribed to a patient with cerebral palsy (CP)? Correct Response: Baclofen and scopolamine Rationale: Baclofen would likely be prescribed for spasticity, and scopolamine would be prescribed for excess drooling. Opioids are not indicated, and most CP patients do not have seizures and would therefore not need phenytoin sodium, which is an antiepileptic. 2 Which type of cerebral palsy (CP) is characterized by poor coordination, unsteady gait, and delayed motor milestones? Your Response: Ataxic Rationale: The ataxic type of CP is characterized by poor coordination, unsteady gait, and delayed motor milestones. Spastic CP involves poor control of posture, balance, and movement; exaggeration of deep tendon reflexes; and hypertonicity of affected extremities. Dyskinetic or athetoid CP is characterized by abnormal, involuntary movements with potential involvement of all extremities; limp, flaccid muscle tone; and possible dysarthria and drooling. The mixed type is a combination of the other three types of CP. 3 What are perinatal causes of cerebral palsy (CP)? Your Response: Asphyxia, hypoxia, cerebral hemorrhage Rationale: Asphyxia, hypoxia, and cerebral hemorrhage are events that can occur in the perinatal period and can cause CP. Preeclampsia, intrauterine trauma, maternal seizures, and prematurity are prenatal events. Kernicterus, head trauma, toxins, and infections are postnatal events. 4 What is the treatment goal for a child with cerebral palsy (CP)? Your Response: Gaining optimal development and function Rationale: The treatment goal for the child with CP is to gain optimal development and function based on the severity of the disease. 5 Which is true of cerebral palsy (CP)? Your Response: CP is the result of nonprogressive, abnormal brain function. Rationale: CP is a nonprogressive, abnormal brain function. It does not develop over time and does not necessarily lead to an early death. Folic acid helps to lower the risk of neural tube defects.
2024 One-Minute Quiz: ToddlerAdolescenceGrowth Quiz Answers 1 At what age is the anterior fontanel expected to close? Your Response: 18 months Rationale: The anterior fontanel is expected to close by 18 months of age. It may close sooner but should close by 18 months at the latest. 2 What is an appropriate intervention for the school-age child? Your Response: Promoting positive body image Rationale: Promoting positive body image is appropriate for all age groups, but this intervention should be emphasized beginning when the child is school-aged. Providing a tricycle and encouraging the child to tie their own shoes are appropriate interventions for younger children. Teaching techniques for communication with parents and authority figures is an appropriate intervention for adolescents. 3 Which child is most likely to be in the process of developing a conscience? Correct Response: Preschooler Rationale: Based on Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development, the preschool-age child is in the initiative versus guilt stage. During this time, it is expected that the child develops a conscience. 4 For which child should there be a focus on sexual health? Your Response: Adolescent Rationale: Sexual maturation occurs during adolescence; therefore, sexual health should be a focus for children within this age group. 5 Which child is expected to be going through the most physical growth? Your Response: Adolescent Rationale: Outside of infancy, the most rapid growth occurs during the adolescent years.
One-Minute Nurse: Sepsis 1 Which is not a potential source of an infection that could cause sepsis? Your Response: Atherosclerosis Rationale: Atherosclerosis does not cause sepsis. Central venous access devices, COVID-19, and a wound like a stage 4 pressure injury are all potential sources of infections that lead to sepsis. 2 Which patient is at the highest risk for developing sepsis? Your Response: A patient admitted for end-stage kidney disease Rationale: People who are immunocompromised, older adults, have chronic illnesses, or have undergone invasive procedures and emergent and/or multiple surgeries are at the highest risk for developing sepsis. In this group, the patient admitted for end-stage kidney disease is at a higher risk than the patient with nephrolithiasis, the patient giving birth, or the patient who is awaiting a procedure. 3 Which statement is true regarding drawing blood cultures? Correct Response: Always draw both sets of blood cultures before administering antibiotics. Rationale: The nurse should always draw both sets of blood cultures before administering antibiotics to ensure that the best unaltered sample is obtained. 4 Which description best characterizes sepsis? Correct Response: The body's exaggerated response to infection Rationale: Sepsis is the body's extreme response to infection. It affects the full body and is not localized. It affects more than the skin and lymph nodes and while it can develop postoperatively, it can also develop due to other reasons. 5 Which are inter-professional goals of treating sepsis? Select all that apply. Correct Response: Prevent and treat infection., Maintain tissue oxygenation., Support failing organs., Keep mean arterial pressure (MAP) above 65 mm Hg. Rationale: Interprofessional goals for treating sepsis are to prevent and treat infection, maintain tissue oxygenation, provide nutritional and metabolic support, support failing organs, and to keep the MAP above 65 mm Hg.
2024 One-Minute Quiz: Sickle Cell Quiz Answers 1 Which is not a complication of sickle cell disease? Correct Response: Thyroid dysfunction Rationale: Thyroid dysfunction is not associated with sickle cell disease. Complications associated with this disease include acute chest syndrome, pulmonary hypertension, stroke, and reproductive disorders. 2 Which treatment may stop the progression of a sickle cell crisis? Correct Response: Supplemental oxygen Rationale: Applying oxygen may keep the cells from becoming too rigid. Pain control, blood transfusions, and hydration are all supportive treatments during a crisis. 3 How is sickle cell disease diagnosed? Correct Response: Low hematocrit level and sickled cells on a blood smear Rationale: A diagnosis of sickle cell disease is made upon observation of a low hematocrit level and sickled cells on a blood smear. 4 What causes the pain associated with a sickle cell crisis? Your Response: Ischemia Rationale: Ischemia, or lack of oxygen due to the clumping of the sickled cells, causes the pain associated with a sickle cell crisis. 5 What is an expected hemoglobin level for a patient with sickle cell disease? Your Response: 5 to 11 mg/dL Rationale: Anemia is typically present in sickle cell disease, with hemoglobin levels ranging from 5 to 11 g/dL.
One-Minute Nurse: Leukemia Quiz Answers 1 In general, what happens in the body to cause leukemia? Your Response: Uncontrolled abnormal production of white blood cells Rationale: Leukemia is the uncontrolled, abnormal production of white blood cells. 2 Which type of leukemia is common among older adults, particularly veterans exposed to Agent Orange? Your Response: Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) Rationale: CLL is most common in older adults, especially veterans who were exposed to Agent Orange. 3 Which are risk factors for leukemia? Select all that apply. Correct Response: History of smoking, History of chemotherapy, Certain genetic disorders Rationale: Smoking, exposure to chemotherapy and radiation, and certain genetic disorders are all risk factors for leukemia. Hypertension and hepatitis are not known risk factors for leukemia. 4 A patient presents with newly diagnosed acute myeloid leukemia (AML). What would the nurse expect to find on assessment? Correct Response: Bleeding gums and fatigue Rationale: Patients with AML present with signs and symptoms of anemia and thrombocytopenia. Bleeding gums and fatigue are clinical manifestations of these conditions. Dusky fingers and bilateral lower extremity deep vein thrombosis are signs of clotting. Pressured speech and eczema on the hands and shortness of breath and a headache are not specific to anemia or thrombocytopenia. 5 Which type of leukemia is most often found in children under the age of 15? Your Response: Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) Rationale: ALL is most commonly diagnosed in children under the age of 15.
2024 One-Minute Quiz: Tetralogy of Fallot Quiz Answers 1 Which is not one of the four heart defects that comprise tetralogy of Fallot? Your Response: Atrial septal defect Rationale: Atrial septal defect is not a component of tetralogy of Fallot. The four defects that comprise it are ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy. 2 Which statement made by the caregiver indicates teaching has been effective related to tetralogy of Fallot? Correct Response: “Surgical intervention is necessary to correct the defects.” Rationale: Surgical intervention will be done as early as possible to correct the defect. It cannot be controlled with medications, and there is no indication that lung surgery later is required. 3 What posturing may indicate that a child is having a hypercyanotic spell? Your Response: Bending at the knees Rationale: Bending at the knees or getting into the fetal position relieves pressure on the pulmonary vasculature, making it easier to breath. Decerebrate and decorticate are indicative of brain damage. Stretching arms overhead is not a posture associated with hypercyanotic spells. 4 Which is not a sign of a hypercyanotic spell? Your Response: Hypotension Rationale: Hypotension is not a sign of a hypercyanotic spell. Signs include dyspnea, agitation, and hypoxemia. 5 Why does cyanosis occur in the infant or child with tetralogy of Fallot? Your Response: Oxygenated and deoxygenated blood have mixed and are being pumped systemically. Rationale: Cyanosis occurs when there is not enough oxygen getting to the tissues. Oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix and are pumped systemically, leading to cyanosis. In this situation, there are functioning alveoli and there is no obstruction. A decrease in respiratory rate due to medication would not necessarily cause cyanosis.
2024 One-Minute Quiz: Cystic Fibrosis Quiz Answers 1 A child with cystic fibrosis is prescribed pancreatic enzymes. When is the best time to administer this medication? Correct Response: With all snacks and meals Rationale: Pancreatic enzymes are given with every meal and snack in order to assist with digestion and absorption. 2 What is the main pathophysiological manifestation of cystic fibrosis? Correct Response: Thickening of secretions in exocrine glands Rationale: Cystic fibrosis is related to cellular changes that lead to the exocrine glands being blocked by thick secretions. 3 What is not a diagnostic study to diagnose cystic fibrosis? Your Response: CT Scan Rationale: The CT scan is not used to diagnose cystic fibrosis. Sweat chloride test, pulse oximetry, and pulmonary function tests are all used to diagnose cystic fibrosis. 4 What therapy is required multiple times a day to decrease pulmonary complications in the patient with cystic fibrosis? Your Response: Chest physiotherapy Rationale: Chest physiotherapy (PT) is required to mobilize secretions to prevent pulmonary complications. Incentive spirometry and ambulating may be helpful, but chest PT will have the greatest therapeutic effect. Use of a humidification tent is not indicated. 5 A patient is diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. What would this patient’s skin assessment likely reveal? Your Response: A salty taste Rationale: Due to excess chloride production, the skin of a patient with cystic fibrosis will taste salty. A sweet smell, lesions, and discoloration are not expected with cystic fibrosis.
One-Minute Nurse: Diabetes Mellitus 1 What does a hemoglobin A1C (HbA1c) measure? Your Response: Average blood glucose over 3 months Rationale: The HbA1c measures the average blood glucose over 3 months. It does not measure current blood glucose, glucose in the urine, or a correlation of hemoglobin and blood sugar. 2 What is true regarding type 2 diabetes? Correct Response: Many patients do not know they have type 2 diabetes. Rationale: Many patients do not know they have type 2 diabetes, partly because it has a slow onset. Obesity is a factor in its development, and it is more commonly diagnosed during adulthood than during childhood. 3 What is true regarding insulin production in type 1 diabetes? Your Response: Little to no insulin is being produced. Rationale: Little to no insulin is being produced in type 1 diabetes, which is why this patient is insulin-dependent. There is not enough insulin produced in type 1 diabetes. Insulin resistance occurs when insulin is produced but it is not enough to counter blood glucose levels. Lifestyle impacting insulin production results in type 2 diabetes. 4 Where is insulin produced? Your Response: Beta cells of the Islets of Langerhans Rationale: Insulin is produced in the beta cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. 5 Which are clinical manifestations of diabetes? Your Response: Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia Rationale: Increased urination (polyuria), excessive thirst (polydipsia), and excessive hunger (polyphagia) are classic manifestations of diabetes. Paresthesia, pallor, pain, and pulselessness are not associated with diabetes unless there are complications.
2024 One-Minute Quiz: GastroReflux Meds Quiz Answers 1 Which medication may cause tardive dyskinesia? Your Response: Metoclopramide Rationale: Metoclopramide may cause tardive dyskinesia. 2 A patient with kidney disease is prescribed famotidine for GERD. For which adverse effect should the nurse monitor? Correct Response: QT interval prolongation Rationale: H2 blockers can cause QT interval prolongation in patients with kidney disease. Ototoxicity is not associated with GERD medications, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) increase the risk of hip fracture, and pro-kinetic agents increase the risk of tardive dyskinesia. 3 A patient is prescribed pantoprazole. For which vitamin deficiency should the nurse monitor? Your Response: Vitamin B Rationale: Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) may increase the risk of hip fractures and interfere with absorption of vitamin and minerals, specifically B12, iron, and magnesium. 4 How does metoclopramide work? Your Response: Facilitates gastric emptying Rationale: Metoclopramide is a prokinetic agent. This medication facilitates gastric emptying and may cause tardive dyskinesia. 5 A patient frequently takes calcium carbonate for GERD. For which should the nurse monitor? Correct Response: Clostridioides difficile Rationale: When taken frequently, calcium carbonate may cause gastric acid suppression, which decreases protective flora. Without the protective flora, the patient is at increased risk for infection, especially clostridioides difficile.
2024 One-Minute Quiz: Muscular Dystrophy Quiz Answers 1 Which statement about muscular dystrophy is true? Your Response: It is always progressive. Rationale: Muscular dystrophy is always progressive but can be more severe in some people than in others. 2 Which medication may slow the progression of muscular dystrophy? Your Response: Corticosteroid Rationale: Corticosteroids may slow the progression of muscular dystrophy. Calcium and vitamin D may help prevent osteoporosis, which can occur with the disease. Beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors may decrease the workload of the heart. 3 When is muscular dystrophy most likely to present? Your Response: Early childhood Rationale: Most muscular dystrophy symptoms present in the early childhood years, but there are some types that do not present until the teen or adult years. 4 What is the Gowers sign? Your Response: Inability to rise from the floor to standing Rationale: A hallmark sign of muscular dystrophy is the Gowers sign, which describes a patient who cannot rise from the floor in an expected fashion because of increasing weakness. 5 What confirms the diagnosis of muscular dystrophy? Your Response: Muscle biopsy Rationale: A muscle biopsy provides a definitive diagnosis of muscular dystrophy. Presence of Gowers sign, electromyography, and an increase in creatine kinase levels support the diagnosis.
