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Praxis ETS SLP exam questions latest

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1. Which of the following is the major physical or organic factor underlying impairment in

the speech of persons with cleft palate?

(A) Congenital hearing loss from otitis media

(B) Broad irregular maxillary arch

(D) Irregular vocal fold abduction: (C) is correct. Palatopharyngeal insufficiency or, more

specifically, velopharyngeal insufficiency is the major cause of the hyper- nasal speech associated

with cleft palate. (A), (B), and (C) are incorrect because otitis media is not congenital; in cleft palate,

the maxillary arch is often collapsed and thus is narrow; and irregular vocal fold abduction is not

associated with cleft palate.

2. An SLP determines the mean length of utterance (MLU) of a language sample from a

three-year-old child. Two weeks later, the SLP reevaluates the same sample and again

determines the MLU. The extent to which the two scores are similar is most directly a

function of the

(A) validity of the scores

(B) reliability of the scores

(D) speededness of the measure: (B) is correct. Reliability is the consistency with which a test

measures or the degree to which repeated measurement with the same instrument of the same

individual would tend to produce the same result. Larger values indicate greater reliability; a

reliability of 0.90 or greater is desirable for a test to be used in making decisions about individuals.

3. An SLP is providing services to adults with neurogenic disorders of com- munication. Of

the following clients, which will likely have the most favorable management prognosis?

(A) John, who has a brain injury resulting in a slight concussion

(B) Jim, who has a traumatic brain injury resulting in paralysis

(D) Helen, who has Huntington's chorea: (A) is correct. The disorder is most limited in scope

among those mentioned and, therefore, most likely to be amenable to therapy or treatment. (B) is

incorrect because the problem described is diffused or dispersed throughout the head with major

impairments to the nerves. (C) and (D) are incorrect because the disorders mentioned are

progressive in nature.

4. An SLP has targeted the phonological process of "stopping on initial fricatives" for

remediation and is using the word "shoes" to establish the new behavior. The SLP now

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Praxis ETS SLP exam questions latest

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Which of the following is the major physical or organic factor underlying impairment in the speech of persons with cleft palate? (A) Congenital hearing loss from otitis media (B) Broad irregular maxillary arch (C) Palatopharyngeal insufficiency (D) Irregular vocal fold abduction: (C) is correct. Palatopharyngeal insufficiency or, more specifically, velopharyngeal insufficiency is the major cause of the hyper- nasal speech associated with cleft palate. (A), (B), and (C) are incorrect because otitis media is not congenital; in cleft palate, the maxillary arch is often collapsed and thus is narrow; and irregular vocal fold abduction is not associated with cleft palate.
An SLP determines the mean length of utterance (MLU) of a language sample from a three-year-old child. Two weeks later, the SLP reevaluates the same sample and again determines the MLU. The extent to which the two scores are similar is most directly a function of the (A) validity of the scores (B) reliability of the scores (C) skewness of the score distribution (D) speededness of the measure: (B) is correct. Reliability is the consistency with which a test measures or the degree to which repeated measurement with the same instrument of the same individual would tend to produce the same result. Larger values indicate greater reliability; a reliability of 0.90 or greater is desirable for a test to be used in making decisions about individuals.
An SLP is providing services to adults with neurogenic disorders of com- munication. Of the following clients, which will likely have the most favorable management prognosis? (A) John, who has a brain injury resulting in a slight concussion (B) Jim, who has a traumatic brain injury resulting in paralysis (C) Juan, who has amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (D) Helen, who has Huntington's chorea: (A) is correct. The disorder is most limited in scope among those mentioned and, therefore, most likely to be amenable to therapy or treatment. (B) is incorrect because the problem described is diffused or dispersed throughout the head with major impairments to the nerves. (C) and (D) are incorrect because the disorders mentioned are progressive in nature.
An SLP has targeted the phonological process of "stopping on initial fricatives" for remediation and is using the word "shoes" to establish the new behavior. The SLP now

wishes to investigate whether the speaker can generalize the newly learned pattern to untrained words. If it is assumed that generalization will occur on words whose phonetic characteristics are most like the trained word "shoes," which of the following words should be selected? (A) Shouting (B) Fished (C) Ocean (D) Shook: (D) is correct. Generalization probes are a principle feature of phonolog- ical therapy. The answer choices require the clinician to pay attention to the position of the fricative sound in a word and also the word's syllable structure.

The Spanish-speaking parents of a nine-year- old bilingual child report that their child communicates in Spanish with complete utterances and has a good vocabulary in comparison to other children in the neighborhood. Their con- cern is that the child interrupts their conversations and has not learned social rules that are important within the family and community. Testing confirms similar problems in English-speaking settings. The SLP would most likely recommend that therapy focus on which of the following language areas? (A) Syntax (B) Morphology (C) Semantics (D) Pragmatics: (D) is correct. The parents have described adequate syntactic and semantic knowledge by the child. Testing in English confirms similar strengths. The area that has been identified as a weakness is pragmatics and social rules for interaction.
A 60-year-old man has Parkinson's disease and is in the early stage of dementia. It would be appropriate to address which of the following goals first in therapy? (A) To educate the family or caregivers (B) To decrease jargon (C) To decrease circumlocution (D) To improve motor skills: (A) is correct. When dementia is associated with Parkinson's disease, it is usually irreversible. Therefore, the family or caregivers must understand the nature of the linguistic and intellectual problems, and learn how to maximize the abilities of the client. The sooner the family or caregivers are made aware of the condition of the client, the better the intervention is likely to be.
An adult female has received 20 sessions of voice therapy for hoarseness related to vocal nodules. Data for pre- and post-evaluation measures for this individual are: Fundamental 175 200 frequency (Hz) Phonation duration 10 15 (sec.) Jitter (percent) 1.2. Mean phonatory 100 150 airflow (ml/sec.) Which of the following is most strongly indicated by the data?

(B) The low-amplitude concentration of periodic energy suggests that the initial consonant is a voiced sibilant fricative. (C) The presence of prevoicing before the release burst suggests that the initial consonant is a voiced affricate. (D) The low-amplitude, diffuse distribution of aperiodic energy suggests that the initial consonant is a voiceless nonsibilant fricative.: (A) is correct. Voiceless sibilant fricatives such as /s/ would be recorded on a spectrogram as having high-amplitude aperiodic energy in the range of 4K Hz.

The "incidence" of a disorder is defined as the (A) prevalence of the disorder (B) number of new cases of the disorder reported within a specified period of time (C) most common etiology of the disorder (D) number of cases of the disorder that were successfully treated: (B) is correct. The term "incidence" pertains to the number of new cases of a disease or disorder arising in a population during a given time period (e.g., over one year or over the life span).
Which of the following types of fibers facilitates communication between the right and left hemispheres by connecting cortical areas in the two hemi- spheres? (A) Association (B) Commissural (C) Efferent (D) Afferent: (B) is correct. Commissural fibers are the only ones that bridge between the two cortical hemispheres.
A 68-year-old man sustained a CVA and received a course of speech-lan- guage treatment for anomic aphasia. He was discharged after making rapid improvement early in therapy. Three years later his wife reports that he is having more difficulty speaking and understanding, but that his memory skills and orientation abilities remain intact. She has also noticed that his conversation skills are slowly deteriorating. Of the following, which is the most likely explanation for the client's communicative decline? (A) A transient ischemic attack (B) An astrocytoma, probably in the vicinity of the supramarginal gyrus (C) Primary progressive aphasia (D) Lewy body dementia: (C) is correct. Primary progressive aphasia is isolated language deterioration with relative preservation of other cognitive abilities and symptoms that vary, depending upon the site of lesion. Signs and symptoms may include word- finding problems characterized by pauses during speech, difficulty naming objects, difficulty with comprehension of spoken and written language, and inability to comprehend word meanings.
1. According to ASHA recommendations, a child who is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit should receive a hearing screening (A) at 3 months of age (B) at 1 year of age (C) at 2 years of age (D) before discharge from the hospital: (D) is correct. According to the Joint Com- mittee on Infant Screening Year 2000 Position Statement: Principles and Guidelines for Early Hearing

Detection and Intervention Programs, II-28, infants admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit should be screened for hearing deficits before discharge from the hospital. The intent behind this recommendation is to evaluate a child's hearing at as early an age as possible.

1. Under the requirement for a child to receive a free and appropriate public education in the least restrictive environment, a public school must provide sign language interpreter services to a child under which of the following conditions? (A) The school district can recover the cost of interpreter services from a third-party payer. (B) The child's physician indicates that the services of an interpreter are medically necessary. (C) The interpreter has been requested by the parent in the IEP meeting. (D) The IEP team determines that interpreter services are necessary for the child.: (D) is correct. Free and appropriate public education in the least restrictive environment is a central tenet of IDEA, which governs special education services in the public schools. IDEA makes clear that the services to be provided to a student must be endorsed as educationally necessary by the entire IEP team, which includes the student's parents, a regular education teacher, a special education teacher, a representative of the local education agency, and others as appropriate.
Which of the following is closest to the correct phonemic transcription of the word displayed in the spectogram? (A) /fil/ (B) /na/±(C) /strT/ (D) /d’t[/: (C) is correct. The spectrogram illustrates the production of the word "star," which has an initial high-amplitude sibilant followed by a plosive, thus the short absence of sound after release of /t/ before production of the vowel.
1. The spacing of the glottal pulses during the vocalic portions indicates that the speaker (A) was whispering (B) used a falling intonation contour (C) used a flat intonation contour (D) had poor vocal-tract control: (B) is correct. The spectrographic recording illustrates a falling intonation contour as the glottal pulses gradually shift downward.
Which of the following is the primary reason for using standardized norm- referenced instruments to assess communication function? (A) To track progress on a session-by- session basis (B) To provide a comparison against a representative population (C) To develop a database for diagnostic purposes (D) To provide qualitative data for the assessment report: (B) is correct. The primary reason for using a standardized norm-referenced assessment is to compare an individual's performance to norms generated from a much larger representative sample. Use of a norm-referenced assessment enables the client's behavior to be compared to typical function for individuals in the same age range. (A) is incorrect because standardized assessments are not administered as frequently as every session. (C) is incorrect because inclusion of client information in a diagnostic database is not the primary reason to use a norm-referenced instrument. (D) is incorrect because performance on

(D) Variable-interval: (C) is correct. The primary reason is because in continuous reinforcement the desired behavior is reinforced every time it occurs. This schedule is generally best during the initial stages of learning to create a strong association between the behavior and the response. (A), (B), and (D) are incorrect because they represent partial reinforcement schemes in which the correct response is reinforced only part of the time. Learned behaviors are acquired more slowly with partial reinforcement.

Intervention from a speech-language pathologist for a nursing home resi- dent who experiences advanced dementia would most effectively focus on (A) conversational turn-taking (B) expressive vocabulary (C) interpretation of facial expression (D) simplification of the communication environment: (D) is correct. The primary reason is because appropriate intervention for an individual with advanced dementia is geared toward simplifying the individual's communication environment. (A), (B), and (C) are incorrect because an individual with advanced dementia is not likely to benefit significantly from intervention targeting improved communication skills.
Melodic intonation therapy (MIT) is generally considered most appropriate for a client with which of the following? (A) (B) (C) (D) Broca's aphasia Conduction aphasia Transcortical sensory aphasia Global aphasia: (A) is cor- rect. MIT is a process in which SLPs sing or hum phrases to individuals with the goal of having individuals tap, sing, or hum the phrase back to the SLP. Research has shown MIT to be successful with people diagnosed with Broca's aphasia, because their comprehension is better than their expression and they retain the ability to repeat. (B) is incorrect. Individuals with conduction aphasia have extreme difficulty repeating , so MIT would not be beneficial. (C) and (D) are incorrect. Individuals with transcortical sensory aphasia and global aphasia have auditory comprehension skills which are extremely impaired so they are not likely to benefit from MIT as the approach requires ability to comprehend what the speaker is saying and to appreciate their own productions in order to repeat.
Which of the following characteristics is most likely characteristic of a client with childhood apraxia of speech? (A) Low muscle tone in the lips, tongue, and jaw (B) Echolalic response patterns (C) Decreased ability to perform diadokokinesis (D) Sensorineural hearing loss: (C) is correct. Childhood apraxia of speech is a motor planning disorder. Diadokokinesis is a task in which the rapid, consistent pro- duction of "puh- tuh-kuh" is measured. Children with this disorder cannot manipulate the articulators in smooth, controlled volitional ways. (A) is incorrect. Apraxia is not a dysarthria that indicates low muscle tone, which makes (A) incorrect. (B) is incorrect. The apraxic child has trouble imitating responses and so is not echolalic. (D) is incorrect. A specific hearing impairment is not indicative of a motor planning speech disorder.

Which of the following is typical social communication behavior for a child aged 3- years? (A) Begins code-switching and uses simpler language when talking to younger children (B) Uses narratives characterized by causally sequenced events (C) Uses language with the intent to persuade others and change their opin- ions (D) Uses single words to express intention: A) is correct. Children aged 3-5 typically show the ability to code-switch and to use simpler language when speaking to younger children. (B) is incorrect. The use of narratives characterized by causally sequenced events is typically seen in children over the age of 5. (C) is incorrect. The use of language with the intent to persuade or change an opinion is typically seen in children over the age of 5. (D) is incorrect. The use of single words to express intention is typically seen in children between the ages of 18 and 24 months.
Which of the following is a diagnosis that an SLP is legally allowed to make independently of other professionals? (A) Parkinson's disease (B) Autism spectrum disorder (C) Obstructive sleep apnea (D) Down syndrome: (B) is correct. An SLP is legally allowed to make the diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder independently of other professionals. (A), (C), and (D) are all incorrect. It is illegal for an SLP to diagnose Parkinson's disease, obstructive sleep apnea, or Down syndrome, although the SLP may be involved in the treatment of such disorders.
Which of the following correctly indicates the point at which an augmen- tative and alternative communication (AAC) evaluation should begin? (A) With the trial use of an AAC device (B) After the client has developed the prerequisite cognitive skills (C) With an analysis of the client's communication needs (D) With a medical consultation: (C) is correct. The assessment should analyze the client's communication needs. (A) is incorrect. The client's needs must be assessed before a device is provided. (B) is incorrect. While the AAC selection will depend on the client's cognitive skills, the match of the device to the client should follow an evaluation of the client's needs. (D) is incorrect. Medical consultation is not needed to evaluate an AAC device.
Which of the following is true about supporting a young child's acquisition of English as a second language? (A) A focus in the family on the English- speaking culture as well as the language will support the child's acquisition of English. (B) To support language development, family members should speak to the child in the language they are most comfortable using. (C) If a child has a language disorder, a delay in learning English will best help the child achieve the highest ultimate level of fluency. (D) Even without support, the child can be expected to be fully fluent in English in less than

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