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D. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151

ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+

DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151

ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+

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Exams

1. True or False: A virus is considered a microorganism. False. Viruses are not living and as such are not considered microorganisms. Viruses can, however, be classified as microbes, a more general term that includes microorganisms and viruses.
2. What is the smallest biological unit of life? A cell.
3. At a generalized level, all cells are comprised of what? Macromolecules A student may also answer: Proteins, Lipids, Nucleic acids and Polysaccharides but they must answer with all four to be fully correct.
4. How many different types of amino acids are available from which to make proteins? 20
5. Define an essential amino acid. An essential amino acid cannot be produced by the human body and as such must be take in from the environment through alternative sources (i.e) food.
6. What are the two major types of nucleic acids and their roles? DNA- deoxyribonucleic acid RNA- Ribonucleic acid DNA- Cellular life has DNA and a role that DNA has is long-term storage of information, it holds the characteristics of living

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A ....................................................................................................................................................................... 3

B........................................................................................................................................................................ 42

C ...................................................................................................................................................................... 46

D....................................................................................................................................................................... 60

C. The molecular formula of Glucose is C 6 H 12 O 6 True of False: The genetic material within a prokaryotic cell is contained within a membrane-enclosed region. False. Only eukaryotic cells contain its genetic material within a nucleus True or False: Prokaryotic cells can be subdivided into Bacteria and Archaea. True Describe the 4 basic bacterial morphologies. Coccus (round/spherical), bacillus (rod), vibrio (curved rod) or spirillum (spiral/corkscrew).

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1 F

2 B

3 E

4 G

5 D

1. True or False: Metabolism is a controlled set of biochemical reactions that occur in living organisms in order to maintain life. True.
2. True or False: Enzymes are polysaccharides that catalyze chemical reactions. False. Enzymes are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions.
3. What are usually metal ions known to assists enzyme during the catalysis reaction? Cofactors are usually metal ions and assist enzyme during the catalysis reaction.
4. Define catabolism. Catabolism is the process of breaking down larger molecules into useful energy sources.
5. Upon cellular injury, which metabolic process is involved during the growth and repair phases of the cell? The anabolic process would be active as it (by definition) is involved in the building up of small complexes into larger complexes.
6. Describe the energy transfer process relative to both ATP and ADP. ATP has the energy (phosphate group) to donate while ADP can accept energy in the form of a phosphate group. Thus, ATP can be reduced (ATP →ADP + Pi) while ADP can be built into ATP (ADP + Pi →ATP).
7. An organism that derives its energy (generates ATP) from photons of light is called a?

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Phototrophic microorganism. An organism that derives its energy by removing electrons from elemental sulfur would be classified as a ? Lithotroph

4. A reactive intermediate would be present in which phosphorylation process? A. Photophosphorylation B. Substrate-level phosphorylation C. Oxidative phosphorylation B. The chemical compound losing the phosphate group is referred to as the phosphorylated reactive intermediate.
5. The catabolism of a single molecule of glucose goes through what 3 distinct transitions? The breakdown of glucose goes through (1) Glycolysis then (2) Fermentation or Respiration and finally through (3) the electron transport chain (ETC).
6. What is the most energetic transition in the catabolism of glucose? The electron transport chain yields 34 ATP while both glycolysis and fermentation (or respiration) each yield only 2 ATP.
7. Identify the reactants of the following chemical equation: Glucose + 2NAD+ → 2 NADH + 2 Pyruvate + 2 ATP The reactants are to the left of the arrow: Glucose and 2NAD+
8. The presence of what molecule ‘signals’ to the cell that glycolysis is about to start? Glucose-6-phosphate (G6P)
9. True or False: In the absence of oxygen fermentation produces 2 ATP.

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3. True or False. The β-oxidation pathway catabolizes the fatty acid chains of lipids. True
4. Describe the relationship between chloroplasts and chlorophyll. Both chloroplasts and chlorophyll are associated with photosynthesis. Chloroplasts are the double membrane- enclosed organelles that contain the photosynthetic pigment chlorophyll.
5. True or False: Chloroplasts are specific to algae and plants. True
6. The process of photophosphorylation produces which of the following: select all that apply. A. ATP B. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate C. CO 2 D. NADPH E. H 2 O A and D.
7. In phosphorylation, the light reactions always occur where? The process of converting light energy into chemical energy (photophosphorylation) always occurs in the membrane.
8. True or False: The Calvin cycle must occur in the absence of light. False. The term ‘dark reactions’ (also known as the Calvin Cycle) simply denotes the second stage in photosynthesis—dark reactions do not actually require darkness in order to occur.
9. How many turns (or repititions) of the Calvin Cycle are required to generate one molecule of glucose?

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Six.

2. Complete the following equation by placing the appropriate numbers where indicated. CO 2 + ATP + NADPH + H 2 0 → C 6 H 12 O 6 + ADP + NADP+ 6 CO 2 + 18 ATP + 12 NADPH + 12 H 2 0 → C 6 H 12 O 6 + 18 ADP + 12 NADP+
3. Match the following reactions to its corresponding enzyme:
4. A-B + H2O → A-OH + B-H
5. A-B→ B-A
6. A + B → A-B
7. A-B → A + B A- Lyases B- Transferases C- Oxioreductaces D- Hydrolases E- Ligases F- Isomerases 1D 1. A-B + H2O → A-OH + B-H Hydrolases 2F 2. A-B→ B-A Isomerases 3E 3. A + B → A-B Ligases 4A 4. A-B → A + B Lyases
8. A micrometer is defined as A. 10 - B. 10 - C.10-

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A. Stage B. Fine Adjustment Knob C. Iris Diaphragm D. Neck E. Condenser Lens F. Eyepiece G. Objective H. Base I. Coaxial Controls 1F 2D 3B 4G 5A 6H

1. For each of the following questions select from the list below the single best answer: Phase-Contrast Dark Field Fluorescence Confocal This type of microscope is best suited for visualizing GFP, RFP and YFP proteins. Fluorescence
2. This type of microscope can provide detailed images of live cells without staining.

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False. Both heat and chemical fixation strategies will kill the cell, making motility observations impossible.

1. You want to observe the size and shape of a cell. What is the easiest staining technique that you could perform? Name at least one dye you would use during this process. Simple stain. You could use any of the following: methylene blue, crystal violet, safranin or fuschin.
2. You suspect a patient may have TB. Once a sample has been obtained it is sent off to the lab for an acid-fast stain. If the patient were infected with TB, describe what you would expect to see on the stained slide. You would expect to see red cells (TB+) on a blue background (TB negative).
3. True or False: If a patient is suspected of having malaria, a Giemsa stain would be an appropriate differential test to perform. True. Giemsa stains are often used in the clinical setting to aid in the diagnosis of blood parasites.
4. True or False: Growth media is best suited for distinguishing between two similar species of bacteria. False. Growth media is designed to simply support (and not restrict) microbial growth.
5. A researcher is asked to determine which of two vials contains E coli and which contains Salmonella. Knowing both are Gram-Negative while only one of them is capable of fermenting lactose, which type of media would be best suited: A. Growth media B. Differential media C. Selective media D. Selective and Differential media B. Differential media distinguishes between two, often related, microbes.
6. What are the requirements of a fastidious microbe?

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False. Chocolate (cocoa) is never added to the media. The name is derived simply based on the color that actually comes from the presence of ‘cooked’ (lysed) red blood cells in the media.

3. A researcher is studying a strain of E. coli currently growing on a MacConkey plate. However, the researcher can’t remember if E. coli is Gram-Positive or Gram-Negative. Would a Gram stain be necessary to confirm? Why or why not? No. A Gram stain would not be necessary, as only Gram-Negative microbes will grow on MacConkey agar. Thus, E. coli is a Gram-Negative microbe.
4. In an attempt to detect the presence of the pathogenic strain of E. coli O157:H7, a researcher spread a culture onto a MacConkey agar with failed results. What type of agar should they (correctly) try next? Why? The microbe should be plated on SMAC (Sorbitol-MacConkey agar) as it is specifically formulated to detect O157:H7. Pathogenic E. coli (O157:H7) cannot ferment sorbitol while non-pathogenic E. coli can ferment both soribitol and lactose. Therefore, colonies that ferment (acidic conditions; non-pathogenic) can be differentiated from non-fermenters (neutral to basic conditions; pathogenic).
5. In Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB) agar, what color indicates the presence of E. coli? Metallic Green.
6. Which type of agar media is best suited to support the growth of Staphylococcus? A. MacConkey agar B. Blood agar C. Columbia CNA agar D. Mannitol salt agar E. Chocolate agar. D. Mannitol salt agar
7. What is the process of spreading a bacterial culture onto a petri dish? Plating.

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2. Describe the primary advantage of using a petri dish over growing a liquid culture? The primary advantage is that cells are held into place. When grown in a nutrient broth, bacterial cells can multiply but are free to move around in solution. When grown on agar within a petri dish the fixed in such as way as to form colonies.
3. True or False: The visualization of colonies on a petri dish represents bacterial cells that have multiplied ~2-3 times. False. When an individual colony is visible on agar the bacterial cell has multiplied often a million times over.
4. True or False. The purpose of a quadrant streak is to produce individual colonies of a bacterial population. True. The purpose of the quadrant streak is to generate individual colonies such that a single (pure) bacterial sample can be isolated.
5. A dilution gradient is formed when carrying out what generalize plating strategy? A quadrant (aka phase-dilution) streak. The resulting gradient should always contain within it the growth of individual colonies.
6. In what phase of a dilution streak would you expect to find the highest concentration of bacteria, P2 or P4? P2 (Phase 2) would contain a higher concentration of bacteria than Phase 4 (P4). The phases rank (from highest to lowest), P1 > P2 > P3 > P4.
7. True or False. When performing a dilution streak a new (or sterilized) loop must be used for each phase. True. Failure to do so would prevent the establishment of a dilution gradient, as the same bacterial concentration would be spread across both phase regions.
8. In order to encourage growth of a slow growing microbe what might a researcher do during a phase dilution streak? A researcher may either (1) opt to perform only a 3-phase dilution streak or (2) pass the loop through the previous phase multiple times (as opposed to only once).

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