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PMHNP Exam Practice Questions and Answers: A Comprehensive Review, Exams of Nursing

This document offers over 200 verified questions and answers designed to prepare students for the pmhnp exam. it covers a wide range of topics, including personality disorders, medication management, neurotransmitters, and ethical considerations in psychiatric nursing. The questions are challenging and require a deep understanding of psychiatric concepts, making it a valuable resource for exam preparation.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 04/25/2025

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PMHNP Exam Practice Over 200 Questions
And Answers A+ Verified
1. what term describes a scientific study that gathers multiple studies and
analyzes them to draw a larger conclusion?: systematic review
2. borderline personality disorder falls under which cluster of personality
disorder traits?: B
3. a 36 year old caucasian male arrives for his usual monthly medication
appointment. diagnosed with schizophrenia & has been stabilized on haldol for
9 years. today he states he has an inner feeling of restlessness & inability to
remain still. what type of E.P.S is suspected?: akathisia
4. which part of medicare provides optional coverage for beneficiaries?: part c
5. the cerebrum contains all of the following areas of the brain except one.
cerebral cortex, brainstem, limbic system, or hypothalamus: brainstem
6. in a family systems context, what is the definition of morphogenesis?: a
family's tendency to adapt to change when changes are necessary.
7. how does the body remove both serotonin and norepinephrine from the
synaptic cleft?: an active re-uptake process
8. a 53 year old menopausal woman presents with complaints of anhedonia,
depressed mood, & vasomotor symptoms. what medication effectively treats
both vasomotor symptoms and depression?: desvenlafaxine/pristiq
it is an S.N.R.I.
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PMHNP Exam Practice Over 200 Questions

And Answers A+ Verified

1. what term describes a scientific study that gathers multiple studies and

analyzes them to draw a larger conclusion?: systematic review

2. borderline personality disorder falls under which cluster of personality

disorder traits?: B

3. a 36 year old caucasian male arrives for his usual monthly medication

appointment. diagnosed with schizophrenia & has been stabilized on haldol for 9 years. today he states he has an inner feeling of restlessness & inability to remain still. what type of E.P.S is suspected?: akathisia

4. which part of medicare provides optional coverage for beneficiaries?: part c

5. the cerebrum contains all of the following areas of the brain except one.

cerebral cortex, brainstem, limbic system, or hypothalamus: brainstem

6. in a family systems context, what is the definition of morphogenesis?: a

family's tendency to adapt to change when changes are necessary.

7. how does the body remove both serotonin and norepinephrine from the

synaptic cleft?: an active re-uptake process

8. a 53 year old menopausal woman presents with complaints of anhedonia,

depressed mood, & vasomotor symptoms. what medication effectively treats both vasomotor symptoms and depression?: desvenlafaxine/pristiq it is an S.N.R.I.

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9. which personality disorder is most likely to have fantasies of success?: nar-

cissistic

10. who should receive a shingles vaccine?: anyone over the age of 60 who has had

chickenpox

11. some states use the umbrella term advanced practice nurse to refer to all of

the following except which one? nurse anesthetists, certified nurse midwife, mid- level providers, or nurse practitioners: mid-level providers

12. eating disorders are characterized by what?: disordered patterns of eating,

accompanied by distress, disparagement, preoccupation, & a distorted perception of one's body shape

13. the federal government offered financial awards to encourage hospitals to

implement meaningful use. the financial awards are tied to specific objectives related to the effective use of electronic health records. give 3 examples of this.:

  1. electronic prescribing

2. electronic medication interaction checks

3. computerized provider order entry

14. for an act to be considered criminal, it must have 2 components: actus reus

& mens rea. what is actus reus?: voluntary conduct

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28. what action takes place during the working phase of a therapeutic relation-

ship?: clarifying patient expectations and mutually identifying goals

29. at what age would you expect a child to sit alone with good coordination,

imitate scribble, develop mild separation anxiety, and respond to social play such as peek-a-boo?: 40 weeks or about 8 months old

30. physical exam findings of Rett syndrome include what?: seizures, irregular

respirations, and scoliosis

31. what endocrine findings are suggestive of alcohol dependency?: testicular

atrophy, sexual dysfunction, and gynecomastia

32. what is sexual identity?: it refers to whom someone is affectionately attracted

33. what are some examples of monoamine neurotransmitters?: dopamine,

norepinephrine, and serotonin

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34. what percent of the incarcerated population in the U.S. has a severe mental

illness?: 15 to 24 percent

35. statistically, gambling disorder is most prevalent among what ethnic/racial

group?: african americans

36. what cranial nerve assessment tests smell, ensures patency of nasal

passages, and is performed by having the client close the eyes to identify smells?: olfactory

37. what are the most common potentially law-breaking sexual behaviors?: -

voyeuristic acts

38. what psychiatric disorder is characterized by at least one psychotic symp-

tom present for less than one month?: brief psychotic disorder

39. in almost every state, nurse practitioners are reimbursed at what percent-

age of the allowable physician rate?: 85 percent

40. which part of medicare provides optional coverage for outpatient pharma-

ceuticals?: part D

41. which class of medications would be most appropriate for treating a patient

stabilized on haldol that is exhibiting mild pseudo-parkinson's symp- toms?: muscarinic 1 agonist

42. patient switched to halodol last week presents with oriented to self, fever of

105.3, heart rate 126, breath rate 22, extremities are stiff and rigid, WBCs of 14, creatinine of 2.6. what is the most serious complication of her presenta- tion?: rhabdomyolsis

43. what is the primary purpose of the corpus callosum?: connect right and left

hemispheres and facilitate sensorimotor information exchange

44. what medication can produce a false positive for methamphetamines?: -

prozac/fluoxetine

45. what medication can produce a false positive for benzodiazepines?: -

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52. what are the general functions of GABA?: reduces arousal, aggression, &

anxiety

53. what are the general functions of serotonin?: regulates sleep, pain, mood

states, & temperature

54. what is an example of a psychological preventative factor that protects

someone from developing a psychiatric disorder?: healthy ego defenses

55. compared with physicians, nurse practitioners save the consumer & the

insurance company what percent of costs?: 20 percent

56. a person who is proficient in the use of software, hardware selection, &

computer maintenance possesses what skill?: computer competency

57. what underlying psychiatric disorder is not linked to insomnia?: opposi-

tional defiant disorder

58. the institutional review board ensures what?: 1. risks to participants are

minimized

2. participant selection is equitable

3. adverse events are reported

4. risks & benefits are evaluated

5. informed consent is obtained & documented

6. data safety monitoring plans are implemented when indicated

59. what are signs & symptoms of stevens johnsons syndrome?: facial swelling,

tongue swelling, macules/papules/burning confluent red rash, skin slough- ing, pro- dromal headache, malaise, arthralgia, & painful mucous membranes may occur before rash

60. what is stevens johnsons syndrome?: immune reaction to a foreign antigen that

can occur with exposure to any anticonvulsant drug

61. what is the therapeutic range for lithium?: 0.6-1.

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62. If first onset of manic symptoms occurs after age 40, what is likely the

cause?: another medical condition

63. what are the side effects of lithium toxicity?: slurred speech, confusion,

coarse hand tremors, severe GI effect

64. what medications when taken with lithium can double the level?: NSAIDs

and ACE inhibitors

65. which personality disorder is most likely to be excessively scrupulous?: -

obsessive-compulsive

66. what EPS has a mask like appearance and a shuffling gait?: pseudo-parkin-

son's

67. what findings do you expect to support autism spectrum disorder?: flat or

blunted affect, little or no eye contact, and lack of emotional reciprocity

10 / example of which yalom curative factor?: universality

81. what medication is not currently indicated for the maintenance phase of

treatment in bipolar 1, but has shown efficacy in treatment of acute manic or mixed episodes?: extended release carbamazepine

82. which medication is strictly contraindicated with selegiline, an M.A.O.I.?: -

meperidine/demerol

83. what is the current understanding of dopamine pathways and clinical

symptoms in schizophrenia?: negative symptoms are due to hypoactivity of mesocortical dopaminergic tract & positive symptoms are due to hyperactivity in the mesolimbic tract primary deficit may be mesocortical tract where dopamine function is diminished & decreasing inhibitory effects of the mesolimbic tract

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84. what serotonin receptor antagonism makes an antipsychotic 'atypical'?: -

5ht2a receptor antagonism and d2 receptor antagonism

85. lorazepam is the preferred benzodiazepine when managing alochol with-

drawal symptoms in a patient with co-morbid what?: hepatic disease

86. what findings on an MRI & pet scan would be uncommon in schizophren-

ics?: decreased cerebral ventricles

87. when there are disturbances in drawing, such as a clock, what area of the

brain is affected?: right hemisphere

88. what can lithium cause to an infant when given to a pregnant woman?: eb-

stein's anomaly

89. what cytochrome enzyme is implicated as a tobacco inducer when an

individual is treated on clozapine?: 1a2, as tobacco use decreases, then the dose needed will decrease, inducer speeds up metabolism, less drug available

90. what direct-acting dopamine receptor angonist is recommended to be

used in the treatment of neuroleptic malignant syndrome to help lower the dopamine receptor blockade?: parlodel

91. what are the recommended cut points for discontinuation of clozapine?: -

w.b.c.s of 2,000 to 3, granulocytes of 1,000 to 1,

92. what is the main differentiating factor between repression and suppres-

sion?: repression is involuntary and suppression is voluntary

93. which anti psychotic medication is the only known anti psychotic known to

reduce the risk of suicide in schizophrenia?: clozapine

94. tramadol has serotonin and noradrenaline re-uptake inhibitors, putting

patients taking SSRIs at risk for what?: serotonin syndrome

95. the literature on group outcomes has revealed that negative group out-

comes has been associated with what quality in group leaders?: being overly

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100. norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter that is implicated in alertness and

anxiety. what area of the brain has a large majority of norepinephrine neu- rons?: locus coeruleus & medullary reticular formation

101. in bipolar 1, men are more prone than women to have what?: manic

episodes women are more likely to have depressive episodes & rapid cycling

102. what hematologic changes can occur with lithium?: leukocytosis

103. the risk of bleeding on SSRIs, NSAIDs, or aspirin is an example of what

principle?: pharmacodynamics

104. the core values that underlie advanced practice nursing and culturally

competent care are:: respect, advocacy, partnership

105. which personality disorder is best treated by combining individual and

group psychotherapy due to the intense transferences and countertransfer- ences that are likely to develop?: borderline personality disorder

106. what is the most accurate description of agoraphobia?: they fear situations or

places they might have trouble obtaining help if they become scared

107. what finding or trait is not suggestive of someone experiencing abuse?-

: aggression

108. what circadian rhythm sleep-wake disorder sub type is characterized by

falling asleep and waking later than desired?: delayed sleep phase type

109. to understand how past development impacts a person's behavior is a

goal of what kind of therapy?: existential

110. what psychiatric condition is characterized by patients who are experi-

encing symptoms of schizophrenia but have been ill for only 1 to 6 months?- : schizophreniform disorder

111. competence to be executed was established in what supreme court

case?: ford versus wainwright

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112. which moral duty does a nurse practitioner leader uphold when he or she

tells the truth?: veracity

113. the technology informatics funding education reform initiative declared

that N.P.s have the responsibility to do what?: understand and shape the land- scape of health care technology

114. what mental status exam findings would be expected in someone experi-

encing abuse?: depressive traits, passive behaviors, & co-dependence

115. what population has the highest rate of antisocial personality disorder?: -

adult men with alcohol use disorder in a forensic setting-particular to forensic setting

116. what circadian rhythm sleep-wake disorder subtype is characterized by

falling asleep and waking progressively later than desired?: non-24-hour sleep- wake type

16 / threats perceived

127. what are the traits of schizotypal personality disorder?: ME PECULIAR:

magical thinking, experiences unusual perceptions, paranoid ideations, eccen- tric appearance/behavior, constricted affect, unusual thinking/speech, lacks close friends, ideas of reference, anxiety in social situations, rule out psychotic/pervasive disorders

128. what are the traits of borderline personality disorder?: IMPULSIVE: im-

pulsive, moodiness, paranoia/dissociation under stress, unstable self-image, labile intense relationships, suicidal gestures, inappropriate anger, vulnerability to aban- donment, emptiness

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129. what are the traits for histrionic personality disorder?: PRAISE ME:

provocative behavior, relationships considered more than they are, attention center, influenced easily, style of speech-impressionistic, make-up, exaggerated emotions

130. what are the traits of narcissistic personality disorder?: GRANDIOSE:

grandiose, requires attention, arrogant, need to be special, dreams of success/pow- er, inter personally exploitative, others-not recognized, sense of entitlement, envious

131. what are the traits of dependent personality disorder?: RELIANCE: reas-

surance required, expressing disagreement difficult, life responsibilities assumed by others, initiating projects difficult, alone, nurture seeking, companionship sought urgently when one ends, exaggerated fears of caring for self

132. what are the traits of schizoid personality disorder?: DISTANT: detached

affect, indifferent to criticism/praise, sexual little interest, tasks solitary, absence of close friends, neither denies/enjoys close relationships, takes pleasure in few activities

133. what are the traits of antisocial personality disorder?: CORRUPT: cannot

conform to law, obligations ignored, reckless disregard for safety, remorseless, underhanded, planning insufficient, temper

134. what are the traits of avoidant personality disorder?: CRINGES: criticism

preoccupies thoughts in social settings, restraint in relationships due to fear of shame, inhibited in new relationships, needs to be sure of being liked before engaging, gets around occupational activities involving interpersonal contact, em- barrassment, self view of inferior

135. what are the traits of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder?: -

SCRIMPER: stubborn, cannot discard worthless objects, rule obsessed, inflexible, miserly, perfectionistic, excludes leisure, reluctant to delegate

136. bipolar is believed to be related to an increase in what neurotransmitter?-

: glutamate

137. according to erikson, during which psychosocial stage would you expect a

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141. what are the MAOIs?: Pit of despair: pheneziline, isocarboxazid, tranyl-

cypromine

142. what are the side effects of MAOIs?: ha ha: hypertension/hypertensive crisis,

anticholinergic side effects, hepatocellular jaundice, arrythmia, anorexia

143. what are the SSRIs?: had the flu twice & feel like a SPEC:

fluvoxamine, fluoxetine, sertraline, paroxetine, escitalopram, citalopram

144. what are the side effects of SSRIs?: bad SSRI: body weight increase, anxiety,

dizziness, serotonin syndrome, stimulated CNS, reproductive/sexual dysfunction, insomnia

145. what are the atypical antipsychotics?: done pine my zone: risperidone,

ziprasidone, clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiparzole

146. What do atypical antipsychotics treat?: positive and negative symptoms of

schizophrenia and bipolar

147. What are the typical antipsychotics?: hal & thio go to PF Changs: haloperi- dol,

thioridazine, perphenazine, fluphenazine, chlorpromazine

148. what are the side effects of the antipsychotics?: i SHADE: impotence,

sedation, hypotension, akathisia, dermatological SEs, extrapyramidal

149. what are the mood stabilizers?: ox & lam are lit for Val because they have no

carbs and good times. oxcarbmazapine, lamotrigine, lithium, valproic acid, carbamazepine, gabapentin, topiramate

150. What do typical antipsychotics treat?: negative symptoms of schizophrenia

151. what are the SNRIs?: feeling depressed & need a shot of norepi? rent a DVD

desvenlafaxine, venlafaxine, & duloxetine

152. What do SNRIs treat?: depression, panic, OCD

153. what are the antihistamines?: hydroxyzine, hydrochloride, diphenhydramine

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154. what are the non-benzodiazipine medications for anxiety?: buspar, beta

blockers, gabapentin, hydroxyzine, guanfacine, clonidine, prazosin

155. What are benzodiazepines?: pams, lams, and librium

Diazepam, lorazepam, temazepam, midazolam, alprazolam, chlordiazepoxide

156. What do benzodiazepines treat?: Anxiety, alcohol withdrawal, Insomnia, Se-

dation, Seizures

157. What are the atypical antidepressants?: Bupropion, Mirtazapine, Trazodone

158. what are the opiate antagonists?: Naloxone, naltrexone

159. what medications are used for non-acute alcohol withdrawal?: DANT:

disulfiram, acamprosate, naltrexone, topiramate

160. what are the anticonvulsants?: Valproate

Carbamazepine Lamotrigine