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PMHNP Psychopharm Exam 14 2024
Which statement is true regarding bipolar disorder and pregnancy?
- A Clonazepam (Klonopin) does not carry an increased risk of major fetal malformations
- B Divalproex sodium (Depakote) is a safe alternative to lithium carbonate
- C Lithium (Lithane, Lithobid) is safe during the first and third trimesters
- D Carbamazepine (Tegretol, Carbatrol, Equetro) is a safe alternative to lithium carbonate - Correct answer: Clonazepam (Klonopin) does not carry an increased risk of major fetal malformations Commonly used mood-stabilizing medications for bipolar disorder carry an increased risk of major fetal malformations. However, clonazepam, lorazepam, and alprazolam are effective in the management of acute manic episodes as an adjuvant to maintenance therapy in lieu of antipsychotics. As an adjuvant to lithium or lamotrigine, clonazepam may result in increased time between cycles and fewer depressive episodes. During the first trimester, the use of lithium (Lithane, Lithobid) increases the risk of fetal cardiac malformations to 7.7%. Lithium can be used in the second and third trimesters, but it must be stopped peripartum due to the rapid fluid shifts during birth. Both carbamazepine (Tegretol, Carbatrol, Equetro) and divalproex sodium (Depakote) increase the risk of neural tube defects. Reference: Sadock, Sadock, & Ruiz. Kaplan and Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry, 11th Edition. Pg 379, 951, 988. In common psychiatric disorders, neurotransmitters are implicated in the complex pathophysiology of certain disease processes. A decrease in dopamine will cause an exacerbation of which disorder?
- A Anxiety disorders
- B Anhedonia
- C Obsessive-compulsive disorders
- D Psychosis - Hide Explanation Correct answer: Anhedonia Patients suffering from anhedonia present with a decrease in dopamine activity. Patients suffering from psychosis and schizophrenia present with an increase in dopamine activity. Patients suffering from anxiety disorders present with a decrease in gamma-aminobutyric acid, or GABA. Patients suffering from obsessive-compulsive disorders present with a decrease in serotonin activity. Reference: Johnson, K., Vanderhoef, D. (2016). Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner 4th edition. Pg 70.
What is the difference between pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics?
- A Pharmacokinetics is the study of what the body does to drugs, and pharmacodynamics is the study of what drugs do to the body
- B Pharmacokinetics is the study of drug receptors and enzymes, and pharmacodynamics is the study of the mechanism of action of drugs
- C Pharmacokinetics is the study of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion; and pharmacodynamics is the study of what the body does to drugs
- D Pharmacokinetics is the study of what drugs do and how they do it, and pharmacodynamics is the study of target sites for drug actions - Pharmacokinetics is the study of what the body does to drugs, and pharmacodynamics is the study of what drugs do to the body A 40-year-old man diagnosed with schizophrenia presents to your office with bradykinesia, drooling, and a festinating gait. Which antipsychotic medication is least likely to cause these side effects?
- A Haloperidol (Haldol)
- B Olanzapine (Zyprexa)
- C Thioridazine (Mellaril)
- D Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) - Correct answer: Olanzapine (Zyprexa) These symptoms suggest antipsychotic-induced parkinsonism, which usually begins after several weeks of treatment. Drug-induced parkinsonism is more common in typical or high- potency antipsychotics like haloperidol, thioridazine, and chlorpromazine and is much less common in atypical or low-potency antipsychotics like olanzapine. Reference: Sadock, Sadock, & Ruiz. Kaplan and Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry, 11th Edition. Pg 972. Psychotropic antipsychotics such as Seroquel and Risperdal can cause blurry vision and cataracts.
True
False - Hide Explanation Correct answer: True Psychotropic antipsychotics such as Seroquel and Risperdal can cause blurry vision and cataracts. Patients are advised to have routine eye exams every six months while being treated with antipsychotics. Reference: Johnson, K., Vanderhoef, D. (2016). Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner, 4th edition. Pg 84.
o Medication errors o Transfusion errors Reference: Zaccagnini, M. E., & White, K. W. (2017). The doctor of nursing practice essentials: A new model for advanced practice nursing. Burlington: Jones & Bartlett Learning. Pg 169-172. At what age would you expect a child to hold his head erect for a few seconds, follow moving objects to midline, and smile preferentially at his mother?
- A 4 weeks
- B 12 months
- C 28 weeks
- D 16 weeks - Hide Explanation Correct answer: 4 weeks At four weeks, landmarks of normal behavioral development include o Hands fisted o Head sags but can hold head erect for a few seconds o Follows moving objects to midline o Responds to speech o Smiles preferentially at mother Reference: Sadock, Sadock, & Ruiz. Kaplan and Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry, 11th Edition. Pg 1087. Pharmacokinetics is the term that describes what a drug does to the body when ingested and paired with the individual's enzyme activity.
- A True
- B False - Hide Explanation Correct answer: False Pharmacodynamics is the term that describes what a drug does to the body when ingested and paired with the individual's pharmacodynamic gene profile. Pharmacokinetics refers to what the body does to a drug when it's ingested. Reference: Johnson, K., Vanderhoef, D. (2016). Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner, 4th edition. Pg 75. Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) detect single based changes in DNA sequence.
True
False - .Hide Explanation Correct answer: True Single nucleotide polymorphisms detect single based changes during the DNA sequencing process. Reference:
Johnson, K., Vanderhoef, D. (2016). Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner, 4th edition. Pg 75. You are a nurse practitioner treating a seven-year-old male. His mother brings him in for his initial appointment with a chief complaint of, "My son's teacher is concerned about my son because he is not able to finish his in-class schoolwork. I just don't know what to do." The mother states that it has been reported that her son fails to give attention in class, gets distracted often, is disorganized with his assignments, constantly loses his homework, is always talking out of turn and distracting other students, and interrupts when other students answer a question. After performing the necessary assessments and testing, you diagnose this client with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), inattentive type. You decide to start him on a low-dose stimulant. Which of the following stimulants is FDA-approved for the treatment of ADHD in children?
- A Kapvay (clonidine)
- B Adderall (amphetamine salts)
- C Str - Hide Explanation Correct answer: Adderall (amphetamine salts) The FDA has approved both stimulants and non-stimulants for the treatment of ADHD in children. Adderall (amphetamine salts) is a stimulant. The following medications are FDA-approved but are not classified as stimulants: o Strattera (atomoxetine) o Intuniv (guanfacine) o Kapvay (clonidine) Reference: Johnson, K., & Vanderhoef, D. Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner review and resource manual, Fourth Edition. Pg 338. At what age would you expect a child to ride a tricycle, build a tower of 10 cubes, draw a circle, put on shoes, and understand taking turns with other children?
- A 2 years
- B 3 years
- C 1 year
- D 5 years - Hide Explanation Correct answer: 3 years At three years of age, landmarks of normal behavioral development include the following: o Rides tricycle o Jumps from bottom of steps o Alternates feet going up stairs o Builds tower of 9 or 10 cubes o Imitates a three-cube bridge o Copies a circle and a cross drawing o Puts on shoes o Unbuttons buttons
1. A
Axon
- B Neuron
- C White matter
- D Dendrite - Hide Explanation Correct answer: Neuron The neuron is the basic cellular unit of the nervous system. It has been called the "microprocessor" of the brain responsible for conducting impulses from one part of the body to another. Dendrites collect incoming signals from other neurons and send the signals toward the neuron's cell body. The axon transmits signals away from the neuron's cell body to connect with other cells. White matter is a type of brain tissue that contains myelinated axons of neurons. Reference: Johnson, K., & Vanderhoef, D. Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner review and resource manual, Fourth Edition. Pg 63-64. What is the primary purpose of the corpus callosum?
- A To connect the right and left hemispheres and facilitate sensorimotor information exchange
- B To coordinate movement of multiple muscles
- C To control voluntary motor movement, working memory, and behavioral cueing
- D To allow for multimodal sensory input and trigger memories - Hide Explanation Correct answer: To connect the right and left hemispheres and facilitate sensorimotor information exchange The corpus callosum is a large bundle of white matter that connects the right and left hemispheres and provides an area of sensorimotor information exchange. Reference: Johnson, K., & Vanderhoef, D. Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner review and resource manual, Fourth Edition. Pg 65. Regarding assessment skills and advanced health and physical assessments, the role of the PMHNP-BC is supportive in nature and ensures the following:
- A Specific focus and interventions are limited to conditions of a psychiatric nature while ruling out presentations possibly caused by non-psychiatric conditions.
- B The PMHNP-BC is confident and competent to perform procedures such as breast exams and Pap smears.
- C Neurological exams should be performed by a specialist in the area of neurology rather than psychiatry.
- D
The PMHNP-BC is often trusted more than primary care providers and is able to support the client with primary care needs. - Hide Explanation Correct answer: Specific focus and interventions are limited to conditions of a psychiatric nature while ruling out presentations possibly caused by non-psychiatric conditions. The PMHNP-BC specifically focuses on assessing for disorders or conditions that explain client presentation of psychiatric disorders and those that may mimic a psychiatric illness. Although the PMHNP-BC has been trained in advanced assessment skills, it is advised that intrusive exams be avoided. Although psychiatric patients are more prone not to visit primary care providers, the PMHNP-BC should always refer the client out for non-psychiatric treatment and always support the necessity of establishing care with a primary care provider. All PMHNP-BC providers should be competent in performing in-depth neurological exams. Reference: Johnson, K., Vanderhoef, D. (2016). Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner, 4th edition. Pg 79-80. The somatic nervous system is responsible for which of the following?
- A Preparing the body for stress by stimulating the activity of organs
- B Maintaining and restoring energy by inhibiting the activity of organs
- C Regulating internal body functions in order to maintain homeostasis and producing involuntary movement
- D Conveying information from the central nervous system to skeletal muscles and producing voluntary movement - Hide Explanation Correct answer: Conveying information from the central nervous system to skeletal muscles and producing voluntary movement The peripheral nervous system is composed of the somatic and autonomic nervous systems. The autonomic nervous system is further divided into the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems. o The somatic nervous system conveys information from the central nervous system to skeletal muscles and is responsible for voluntary movement. o The autonomic nervous system regulates internal body functions to maintain homeostasis. It is responsible for involuntary movement and is divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. § The sympathetic nervous system prepares the body for stress by stimulating the activity of organs. § The parasympathetic nervous system maintains and restores energy by inhibiting the activity of organs. Reference: Johnson, K., & Vanderhoef, D. Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner review and resource manual, Fourth Edition. Pg 64. Which of the following correctly pairs the pharmacodynamic effect with its definition?
- A Inverse agonist effect: drug binds to receptors and activates a biological response
- B Partial agonist effect: drug does not fully activate the receptors
This patient's presentation is most likely tardive dyskinesia, a movement disorder that can occur after long-term use of antipsychotic medication like haloperidol (Haldol). It is characterized by abnormal motor movements including lip smacking, facial grimacing, and choreoathetosis-like movements of the limbs and trunk. Anticholinergic toxicity would be accompanied by delirium. Meige syndrome is an oral facial dystonia that involves blinking and chin thrusting. Sydenham chorea is associated with rheumatic fever and occurs in children. Reference: Sadock, Sadock & Ruiz. Kaplan and Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry, 11th Edition. Pg 1301. Calcium values can be increased during treatment with anticonvulsants, aspirin, corticosteroids, heparin, and oral contraceptives.
- A False
- B True - Hide Explanation Correct answer: False Calcium values can be decreased during treatment with anticonvulsants, aspirin, corticosteroids, heparin and oral contraceptives. Reference: Johnson, K., Vanderhoef, D. (2016). Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner, 4th edition. Pg 90. How does the body remove both serotonin and norepinephrine from the synaptic cleft?
- A A reverse action potential
- B An active reuptake process
- C Diffusion off their receptors
- D A monoamine oxidase enzymatic action - Hide Explanation Correct answer: An active reuptake process Both serotonin and norepinephrine are removed from the synaptic cleft and returned to storage via an active reuptake process. Dopamine, on the other hand, is removed from the synaptic cleft by monoamine oxidase enzymatic action. Reference: Johnson, K., & Vanderhoef, D. Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner review and resource manual, Fourth Edition. Pg 68-71. Systemic effects of hypernatremia include which of the following?
- A Restlessness
- B Confusion
- C Apprehension
- D Lethargy - Hide Explanation
Correct answer: Restlessness Systemic effects of hyponatremia include confusion, apprehension, and lethargy. Reference: Johnson, K., Vanderhoef, D. (2016). Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner, 4th edition. Pg 91. Decreased levels of calcium in the bloodstream is indicative of what type of disease process?
- A Addison's disease
- B Acidosis
- C Hyperthyroidism
- D Renal failure - Hide Explanation Correct answer: Renal failure In acute renal failure, calcium levels decrease. On the other hand, in disease processes such as acidosis, Addison's Disease, and hyperthyroidism, calcium levels are known to be increased. Reference: Johnson, K., Vanderhoef, D. (2016). Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner, 4th edition. Pg 89. Magnesium is responsible for neuromuscular activity and excitability. An increased level of magnesium in the body is linked to all of the following illnesses except:
- A Hypothyroidism
- B Alcoholism
- C Hyperthyroidism
- D Renal failure - Hide Explanation Correct answer: Alcoholism Alcoholism is linked to decreased levels of magnesium in the body. Other diseases linked to increased magnesium levels: o Addison's disease o Diabetic ketoacidosis o Dehydration Reference: Johnson, K., & Vanderhoef, D. Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner review and resource manual, Fourth Edition. Pg 92. In common psychiatric disorders, which neurotransmitter is implicated in the complex pathophysiology of certain disease processes involving normal functions such as decision- making and integrated cognition?
- A Norepinephrine
- B Glutamate
Variable expression of a gene for a disorder occurs at the cellular level. Reference: Johnson, K., Vanderhoef, D. (2016). Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner, 4th edition. Pg 75. The definition of primary care is:
- A The production of integrated, accessible health care tests by clinicians who are accountable for addressing all populations and their personal health care needs by developing a sustained partnership with patients, and practicing in the context of family and community with the financial backing of the insurance companies
- B The provision of integrated, accessible health care services by clinicians who operate only under the umbrella of federal law, apply science to their practices, and seek to establish a practice devoted to only specialized areas of medicine
- C The provision of integrated, accessible health care products by clinicians who are accountable for addressing minority populations and their personal health care needs by developing a sustained partnership with patients, and practicing in the context of family and community
- D The provision of integrated, accessibl - Hide Explanation Correct answer: The provision of integrated, accessible health care services by clinicians who are accountable for addressing a large majority of personal health care needs, developing a sustained partnership with patients, and practicing in the context of family and community Reference: Buppert, Carolyn. Nurse Practitioner's Business Practice and Legal Guide, 5th Edition. Pg 7. The measles, mumps and rubella vaccine should not be given to those in which of the following situations:
- A Those who have received a blood transfusion in the past two weeks
- B Children aged 6- 12
- C Postmenopausal women
- D Men over the age of 25 - Hide Explanation Correct answer: Those who have received a blood transfusion in the past two weeks Those who have received a blood transfusion in the past two weeks, pregnant women, people with cancer, those with weakened immune systems, and those who have HIV or AIDS with T-cell counts below 200 should not receive the MMR vaccine. MMR vaccines are safe for postmenopausal women, men over the age of 25, and children aged 6-12. Reference: Johnson, K., Vanderhoef, D. (2016). Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner, 4th edition. Pg 98. A 36-year-old Caucasian male arrives for his usual monthly medication appointment. He is diagnosed with schizophrenia and has been stabilized on haloperidol for the past nine years.
Today he complains of an inner feeling of restlessness and the inability to remain still. He states, "I've been pacing around my apartment nonstop, just walking up and down the stairs." You suspect this is what type of extrapyramidal side effect?
- A Dystonia
- B Akinesia
- C Akathisia
- D Tardive dyskinesia - Hide Explanation Correct answer: Akathisia Extrapyramidal symptoms are drug-induced side effects that affect motor functioning and muscle movement. Typical antipsychotics like haloperidol, perphenazine, and chlorpromazine are more likely to cause these side effects than atypical antipsychotics like olanzapine, lurasidone, and risperidone. The common types of extrapyramidal symptoms are listed below: o Akathisia: motor restlessness, inability to remain still, rocking, pacing, or constant motion of a unilateral limb, subjective sense of restlessness, often mistaken for increasing anxiety o Akinesia: absence of movement, difficulty initiating motion, subjective feeling of lack of motivation to move, often mistaken for laziness or lack of interest o Dystonia: muscle spasticity usually in the back or neck, subjectively painful, often mistaken for agitation o Pseudo-Parkinson's: shuffling gait, motor slowing, mask-like facial expression, pill-rolling, tremors, muscle rigidity o Tardive dyskinesia: involuntary abnormal muscle movement of the mouth, tongue, face, and jaw that may progress to limbs; can be irreversible, can occur as an acute process at the initiation of medications or as a chronic condition at any point during treatment Reference: Johnson, K., & Vanderhoef, D. Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Review Manual, Fourth Edition. Pg 249. What is a rare but dangerous side effect of the antidepressant medication trazodone (Oleptro)?
- A Anorgasmia
- B Gynecomastia
- C Impotence
- D Priapism - Hide Explanation Correct answer: Priapism The incidence of priapism is about 1 in 6,000 men who are taking trazodone (Oleptro). Although rare, this side effect usually occurs within the first month of treatment and should prompt immediate discontinuation. Priapism is the prolonged erection of the penis, usually without sexual arousal. Reference: Sadock, Sadock, & Ruiz. Kaplan and Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry, 11th Edition. Pg 999.
3. C
Low birth weight
- D Withdrawal-like symptoms - Hide Explanation Correct answer: Decreased desire for human contact Marijuana is used by 3% of all pregnant women. Chronic marijuana use is associated with the following symptoms in neonates: o Low infant birth weight o Prematurity o Withdrawal-like symptoms o Excessive crying o Tremors o Hyperemesis (severe vomiting) Reference: Sadock, Sadock, & Ruiz. Kaplan and Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry, 11th Edition. Pg 1086. Increased penetrance of a gene decreases the chances of disease in a person who is or may be at a genetic risk.
- A True
- B False - Hide Explanation Correct answer: False Reduced, not increased, penetrance of a gene decreases the chances of disease in a person who is or may be at a genetic risk. Reference: Johnson, K., Vanderhoef, D. (2016). Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner, 4th edition. Pg 75. Systemic effects of hypernatremia include all of the following except:
- A Thirst
- B Fever
- C Hypotension
- D Weight gain - Hide Explanation Correct answer: Weight gain Other presentations of hypernatremia: o Convulsions o Pulmonary edema o Dry mucous membranes o Tachycardia o Low jugular venous pressure o Restlessness Presentations of hyponatremia: o Lethargy o Headache
o Confusion o Apprehension o Seizures o Coma o Hypotension o Tachycardia o Decreased urine output o Weight gain o Edema o Ascites o Jugular vein distension Reference: Johnson, K., & Vanderhoef, D. Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner review and resource manual, Fourth Edition. Pg 91. In common psychiatric disorders, neurotransmitters are implicated in the complex pathophysiology of certain disease processes. It is important to understand neurotransmitters in the central nervous system in order to better diagnose and treat common psychiatric illnesses. Which neurotransmitter's general function involves regulation of sleep, pain perception, mood states, temperature, aggression, and libido?
- A Dopamine
- B Serotonin
- C Glutamate
- D Norepinephrine - Hide Explanation Correct answer: Serotonin The general function of serotonin involves regulation of sleep, pain perception, mood states, temperature, aggression, and libido. It is a precursor for melatonin. The general function of dopamine involves normal functioning of thinking, decision-making, reward-seeking behavior, fine muscle action, and integrated cognition. The general function of norepinephrine involves alertness, orientation, fight-or-flight, learning, memory, and focus and attention. The general function of glutamate involves memory and sustained autonomic functions. Reference: Johnson, K., Vanderhoef, D. (2016). Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner 4th edition. Pg 71-72. A 29-year-old intellectually disabled female patient presents to the emergency room along with staff members from her residential care facility. Last week, her antipsychotic medication was switched from thioridazine to haloperidol. Upon examination, it is found that she is disorientated to time and place, is diaphoretic, and has a temperature of 105.3, a heart rate of 126 beats/minute, and a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute. Her extremities are stiff and rigid. Her labs reveal a white blood cell count of 14,000 and creatinine phosphokinase of 2,600 U/L. What is the most serious complication of her presenting syndrome?
- A Myocardial infarction
Tanner Stages of a girl's breast development are as follows: o Stage 1: Prepubertal o Stage 2: Breast bud stage with elevation of breast and papilla o Stage 3: Further enlargement of breast and areola o Stage 4: Areola and papilla form a secondary mound above the level of the breast o Stage 5: Projection of papilla related to recession of areola Reference: Johnson, K., & Vanderhoef, D. Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner review and resource manual, Fourth Edition. Pg 99. Why is the outermost surface of the brain covered in sulci and fissures?
- A They coordinate communication between the right and left hemispheres
- B They increase the surface area of the brain
- C They provide the most focal area for personality development
- D They connect large bundles of white matter - Hide Explanation Correct answer: They increase the surface area of the brain The outermost surface of the brain contains small shallow dips (sulci) and deep grooves (fissures). These sulci and fissures increase the surface area of the brain to allow for more cell communication. The sulci and fissures also provide anatomical landmarks for reference points. Reference: Johnson, K., & Vanderhoef, D. Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner review and resource manual, Fourth Edition. Pg 64-65. A patient with a known diagnosis of bipolar I disorder presents to your clinic complaining of manic symptoms and insomnia. Your patient has been stable on lithium for the past six months. To determine if a medication change or increase is warranted, it is important to gather more information. You suspect a possible medication-induced manic episode when the patient endorses what?
- A She was recently placed on a beta blocker for anxiety
- B She recently began a new retroviral regimen for hepatitis
- C She was recently prescribed a benzodiazepine by her primary care provider for panic attacks
- D She recently had an acute flare-up of her rheumatoid arthritis and received treatment for one week for stabilization of symptoms - Hide Explanation Correct answer: She recently had an acute flare-up of her rheumatoid arthritis and received treatment for one week for stabilization of symptoms Patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) who experience an acute episode may be prescribed a short-term steroid to alleviate the exacerbation of RA. Steroids are known to cause mania in patients with bipolar disorder. Beta blockers, benzodiazepines, and retroviral agents cause an exacerbation of depressive symptoms, not mania. Reference:
Johnson, K., & Vanderhoef, D. Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner review and resource manual, Fourth Edition. Pg 119. A known patient of yours with a diagnosis of PTSD presents to your clinic for a refill of his medication. You meet with him and determine that he is stable and does not need any medication adjustments at this time. You provide him with a renewal prescription of what medication?
- A Haldol (haloperidol)
- B Paxil (paroxetine)
- C Lithium
- D Ativan (lorazepam) - Hide Explanation Correct answer: Paxil (paroxetine) Paxil is an SSRI and is FDA-approved for the treatment of PTSD. Another SSRI medication that is FDA-approved and often used in the treatment of PTSD is Zoloft (sertraline). Haldol is a first-generation antipsychotic and is not recommended in the treatment of PTSD. Lithium is a mood stabilizer and the gold standard for the treatment of bipolar I disorder; it is not FDA-approved for the treatment of PTSD. Ativan is not FDA-approved for and not recommended in the treatment of PTSD. Reference: Johnson, K., & Vanderhoef, D. Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner review and resource manual, Fourth Edition. Pg 224-225. Functional imaging is a technique that measures functioning of areas of the brain and bases the resulting assessment on blood flow. In functional imaging, pharmaceuticals are used to cross the blood-brain barrier.
- A False
- B True - Hide Explanation Correct answer: True Functional imaging is a technique that measures functioning of areas of the brain and bases the resulting assessment on blood flow. In functional imaging, radioactive pharmaceuticals are used to cross the blood-brain barrier. Common functional imaging testing includes EEG and evoked potentials testing, magnetoencephalography (MEG), single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT), and positron emission tomography (PET). Reference: Johnson, K., Vanderhoef, D. (2016). Psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner 4th edition. Pg 72-73. The cerebrum contains all of the following areas of the brain except:
- A Limbic system
- B Hypothalamus
- C
