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placement'in 2016 verileri pdfdir., Lecture notes of Catalan Philology

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2018/2019

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EASTERN MEDITERRANEAN UNIVERSITY
SCHOOL OF FOREIGN LANGUAGES
ENGLISH PREPARATORY SCHOOL
Sample Placement Test
Time allowed: 120 minutes
Student No: __________
Name & Surname: ________________________________
Group: __________
Exam room number: __________
READ THE INSTRUCTIONS BEFORE YOU DO ANYTHING ELSE.
1. Leave your ID card on the desk at all times.
2. Turn off and hand-in your mobile phone(s) to the invigilator(s).
3. Write your student number, your name, your group number and the exam room number on the
optic answer sheet.
4. Blacken your answers on the optic answer sheet in pencil. Any answers on the Test Booklet will
not be scored.
5. Use an eraser (rubber) to change your answers on the optic answer sheet.
6. Do not tear or separate the pages of the Test Booklet.
7. Do not use a dictionary or any other material.
8. Do not ask the invigilator(s) any questions about the content of the test.
9. You are not allowed to leave the examination room during the first 30 minutes.
10. On your way out, give all the test materials back to the invigilator(s).
11. Do not talk in the corridors while leaving the building.
PLEASE COUNT
THE PAGES
IN YOUR
TEST BOOKLET
(18 Pages)
BOOKLET A
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EASTERN MEDITERRANEAN UNIVERSITY

SCHOOL OF FOREIGN LANGUAGES

ENGLISH PREPARATORY SCHOOL

Sample Placement Test

Time allowed: 120 minutes

Student No: __________ Name & Surname: ________________________________ Group: __________ Exam room number: __________

READ THE INSTRUCTIONS BEFORE YOU DO ANYTHING ELSE.

**1. Leave your ID card on the desk at all times.

  1. Turn off and hand-in your mobile phone(s) to the invigilator(s).
  2. Write your student number, your name, your group number and the exam room number on the** **optic answer sheet.
  3. Blacken your answers on the optic answer sheet in pencil. Any answers on the Test Booklet will** **not be scored.
  4. Use an eraser (rubber) to change your answers on the optic answer sheet.
  5. Do not tear or separate the pages of the Test Booklet.
  6. Do not use a dictionary or any other material.
  7. Do not ask the invigilator(s) any questions about the content of the test.
  8. You are not allowed to leave the examination room during the first 30 minutes.
  9. On your way out, give all the test materials back to the invigilator(s).
  10. Do not talk in the corridors while leaving the building.**

PLEASE COUNT

THE PAGES

IN YOUR

TEST BOOKLET

(18 Pages)

BOOKLET A

SECTION I – LISTENING

Part I You will hear five sentences twice. Match what you hear with one of the answers. Put a circle round the letter of the correct answer. Now, look at the example. You hear ‘It’s a dress, It’s a dress.;’ The answer is (a).

Example: a) b) c) d)

a) b) c) d)

Part III

Listen to Lucy’s phone conversation. For questions 11 – 15 , choose the correct answer A, B or C. You will hear the conversation twice.

  1. Why does Lucy’s mother refuse to clean her room? a) It’s too dirty. b) It’s too untidy. c) It’s too big.
  2. Why does Lucy spend so much money? a) She gets a lot of pocket money. b) Her friends make her buy things. c) She is attracted to things which are on sale.
  3. What sort of people is the new TV series going to help? a) Teenagers who need to sort out their things. b) Teenagers who have problems saving money. c) Teenagers who annoy their parents.
  4. What is the main idea of the TV series? a) People have to throw away all their possessions. b) People have to sell most of their possessions to raise money. c) People have to decide what to keep and what to throw away.
  5. What else will the TV team do? a) Improve the bedroom. b) Organise other rooms in the house. c) Buy some special gifts for the bedroom.

Part IV You will hear a conversation between two friends. For questions 16 – 20, choose the best answer A, B or C.

You will hear the conversation twice.

  1. When did Verity get back from her trip? a) three weeks ago b) two weeks ago c) a week ago
  2. How did Verity learn Greek? a) She lived there. b) She had lessons. c) She taught herself.
  3. In Greece, Verity had expected to hear more________. a) accents b) unfamiliar words c) English
  4. How did Verity feel about her mistakes? a) embarrassed b) interested c) angry
  5. Verity sometimes got confused by her Greek friends’ ________. a) jokes b) ideas c) gestures

Instructions: Choose the best alternative for each blank in the following texts.

TASK B

Sisters Kate and Helena talk about each other and how they (31) ____ together. Kate: “Helena and I are very different. She is ambitious, but I’m more (32) ____ about life and work. Helena is very (33) ____. She is always sure that she is very good at everything she does. She loves (34) ____ and spends her free time in the gym. I just walk to work and I find it more interesting than the gym, and cheaper, too. The best thing about Helena is her kindness. She always buys beautiful presents for everyone. We (35) ____ much closer recently but we’re still (36) ____ different people.’ Helena: ‘Kate is very successful in her work and her life. She works for a TV company as a researcher so she often works outside. She (37) ____ go to the office every day, like I do. She doesn’t earn as much as I do, but I think she’s (38) ____. Kate isn’t very interested (39) ____ looking smart. She usually wears jeans and a T-shirt - she can wear anything she likes at work. She isn’t very fit, either. I like working out at the gym. She never goes there. Kate is a great listener. If I have a problem I know I (40) ____ always talk to her. Kate is very different from me, but she’s my sister and I love her.

  1. a) give up b) look after c) get on d) think about
  2. a) friendly b) generous c) relaxed d) intelligent
  3. a) confident b) talkative c) serious d) modest
  4. a) keep fit b) keeping fit c) keeps fit d) to keeping fit
  5. a) have become b) become c) becoming d) are going to become
  6. a) completely b) finally c) suddenly d) only
  7. a) can’t b) mustn’t c) shouldn’t d) doesn’t have to
  8. a) happiest b) happily c) happier d) happiness
  9. a) on b) at c) in d) to
  10. a) won’t b) do c) couldn’t d) can

TASK C

Skateboarding is an action sport which involves riding and performing tricks using a skateboard. Today, it is actually one of (41) ____ common sports in the whole world. Nowadays, there are (42) ____ skateboarders around the world. It (43) ____ about thirty years for this leisure activity to become so popular. There were actually a few ‘home-made’ skateboards in the 1960s, but it wasn’t until 1970 that things really (44) ____ to happen, in the Pacific Ocean Park area of Los Angeles, California. One group of people in particular was (45) ____ for the development of skateboarding. The ‘Z-Boys’ were enthusiastic surfers and (46) ____ to transfer their skills to dry land. In the early 1970s, there was very little rain in California and many people (47) ____ leave their swimming pools empty. These flat spaces were excellent skateboarding locations for the Z-Boys (48) ____ soon became famous. They successfully used the skateboard in new and (49) ____ ways. If you want to try skateboarding, it is for sure that you (50) ____ have lots of fun!

  1. a) less b) more c) the most d) the least
  2. a) many b) much c) a little d) any
  3. a) was taking b) has taken c) takes d) is taking
  4. a) starts b) starting c) have started d) started
  5. a) responsible b) possible c) manageable d) acceptable
  6. a) imagined b) decided c) considered d) invented
  7. a) have to b) didn’t have to c) must d) had to
  8. a) who b) which c) whose d) where
  9. a) excited b) exciting c) excitement d) excite
  10. a) could b) should c) will d) would

SECTION III – READING

Instructions: Read text 1 and do the following task. Text 1

Pilots have (eg.)B. They visit many places and (61) ____; English, Turkish, Chinese, etc. But is it an easy job? Alan Alder is a pilot. He usually flies (62) ____ on Tuesdays. He gets up at 5.00 and he (63) ____ the airport at 6.00. His flight is at 8 o’clock. Eleven hours later he’s in California. It is 11.00 a.m. in Los Angeles. Normally, he doesn’t go out. He relaxes on (64) ____ : he watches television and goes to bed early. On Friday he flies back to London. Does he like his job? ‘It’s very hard work,’ he says. ‘But the money is good and I ( 6 5) ____ in different countries. Life in the sky is great!’

Instructions: Choose the correct word(s) or phrases A-H to complete each sentence in text 1. There are two extra words or phrases. The first one is an example for you.

A. arrives at B. interesting lives C. Alan’s flight is D. have good holidays E. from London to Los Angeles F. meet many people G. easy jobs H. the first day

Instructions: Read Text 2 and do the task on the next page.

Text 2 MYTHBUSTERS

I. Jamie and Adam are engineers who test popular science myths to see if they are true - or could be true. They spend their time doing experiments and building models so they can find out if the science behind what people believe is correct or not. II. They wanted to test James Bond’s exploding pen. Could a pen really make a big explosion like in the film? They filled a pen with a small amount of explosive and threw it into the air. Guess what? When it hit the ground, it made a big explosion. Obviously they didn’t use a real person to throw the pen, but it did make a big hole - nearly two metres wide! Jamie said he was very surprised. III. They also decided to test some of the ‘science’ from the film Pirates of the Caribbean. They tested if a man can go down a sail on a boat from the top to the bottom using a long knife. They couldn’t do this in the laboratory so they had to use a real boat. Adam told me that it did not work. The sail is too strong to cut easily. If you tried this, you would fall a long way! IV. Next, they tried to find out about another idea used in the film. If you cover one eye before you go into somewhere dark, can you see better? Jamie covered his eye, then tried to walk round objects in a dark room. He said this worked well. He could see much better. So some of the science in films is true - but not all of it! V. I asked the team if they enjoyed their work. They said that they loved it! They have a lot of fun, but they are serious scientists. They are all very good at Maths, Chemistry and Physics. And they still have a lot of myths to bust! Adam said they would research robots next. ‘We want to see how clever they really are!’

Instructions: Read Text 3 and do the following task.

Text 3

I must have always been fit. My parents said that when I was young, they had to take me out every day so that I could have lots of exercise. I was always running and climbing and would rather kick a ball around the park and play tennis than watch TV. Sport at school was fun. (71) _____________________. I was in the football and basketball teams and loved sporting events but I wanted to try something new. Then one day I went to see a circus that was performing in our town. (72) _____________________. I wanted to work in the circus. I’d always been good at gymnastics and had trained with a local gym but I knew that circus skills needed strength and stamina. I wondered what it would be like in the circus so after the performance I talked to some of the artists and gymnasts. (73) _____________________. They also said that I would have to leave home to do shows in other countries. That didn’t put me off. Instead, I applied to go to a special circus school and won a place. The circus school taught me to combine a healthy diet with regular exercise. I learnt different circus skills but as soon as I tried the trapeze I was addicted to it. (74) _____________________. We do daily workouts to keep fit and we spend hours practicing for a live show. What we do looks dangerous and scary but we work together and we’re a good team. The shows can be exhausting. (75)_____________________. I often sit around chatting for a while to let my body calm down. Sometimes it’s tough being away from my family but I couldn’t have done anything else- I love the circus.

Instructions: Read text 3 and choose from the sentences (a-f) the one which best fits each gap (71-75). There is one extra sentence that you do not need to use.

**71. ____




  1. ____**

a) That’s when I knew what I wanted to do with my life. b) They told me that it would take years to become a professional circus performer. c) So, it’s important to know how to relax afterwards. d) I knew that I would have to train hard to be in a trapeze team. e) I could have joined the circus when I was younger. f) I couldn’t wait to get out of the classroom and into the gym.

Instructions: Choose the best alternative according to the information in Text 4.

  1. What is the writer’s main purpose in writing the text? a) to agree with an accepted saying b) to complain about modern transport c) to explain his ideas about travelling d) to describe an unusual train journey
  2. What does the writer say about travelling by air? a) He finds the delay before take-off annoying. b) He enjoys the feeling of freedom it gives. c) He prefers it to driving, despite the time taken. d) He wishes the engines were much quieter.
  3. When the writer travels by train he likes to _____________. a) spend much of the journey asleep b) sit in a completely empty carriage c) admire the countryside along the way d) listen to the movement of the wheels
  4. According to the writer, a train journey is good for us because it _____________. a) encourages us to remember certain things b) allows us to forget about our daily problems c) lets our minds concentrate on a single idea d) offers us the chance to be totally relaxed
  5. Which of the following might the writer say? a) If we travelled less often, we would have better memories of our visits. b) Unless the destination is unusual, it is not worth the effort of getting there. c) Although modern travel is fast and easy, there are too many disadvantages. d) Although journeys can be uncomfortable, they are beneficial to our lives.

SECTION IV - CONVERSATIONAL SKILLS

Instructions: Choose the best phrase to complete each conversation.

  1. Do you work on Saturdays? a) Yes, I work. b) Yes, I do. c) Yes, I am.
  2. How old are you? a) No, I’m not. b) I’m 25. c) I’m a teacher.
  3. What does she do? a) She’s an engineer. b) She lives in London. c) She’s single.
  4. Who do you visit at weekends? a) My hometown. b) My school. c) My grandparents.
  5. Have a nice weekend, Tom. a) Hello Sally! b) Thanks, Sally. Same to you. c) Oh, that’s good news.
  6. I’m tired of walking everywhere. a) OK. Let’s catch the bus. b) Yes, I want to sleep, too. c) Let’s walk home.
  7. I think visiting old castles is fun. a) Yes, they are funny! b) Really? I think they’re boring. c) When did you go?
  8. I’m afraid of the dark. a) Me too! b) Yes, I like the dark. c) That’s great.
  9. I want to visit some pyramids one day. a) No, I haven’t been. b) Yes, they are old. c) Good idea!
  1. A: I am going to Texas. B: Really? How nice! ______________________. a) If I were you, I would feel terrified b) You must be looking forward to it c) That’s ridiculous
  2. A: You look gorgeous. B: Thanks. __________________. a) I won’t have anything b) Don’t be silly c) You look great too
  3. A: Mum, There is a good concert in the Town Bar tonight, and my friend has got two tickets. Do you mind if I go? B: _____________________. a) Yes, I will give you a hand b) No, I don’t but you shouldn’t stay out late c) No, it’s alright, thanks