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Physics 143b: Quantum Mechanics II, Summaries of Quantum Mechanics

Harvard University. Physics 143b: Quantum Mechanics II. Practice Final exam. 1. We refer to the states of a qubit using the eigenstates |T>, |+> of σz, ...

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Harvard University
Physics 143b: Quantum Mechanics II
Practice Final exam
1. We refer to the states of a qubit using the eigenstates |↑i,|↓i of σz, which we write as
|0i,|1irespectively.
(a) Two qubits are initialized in the state |0,0i. A Hadamard operation is applied on
the first qubit, followed by a cNOT operation (with the first qubit as the control
qubit); see definitions below. What is the final quantum state of the qubits ?
(b) After the operations in (a), Alice takes the first qubit, and Bob takes the second
one. Alice then applies a magnetic field Bon her qubit in the zdirection for
a time T(this is described by the Hamiltonian HAlice =z). Finally Alice
measures the value of σxon her qubit and finds the value +1. What is the state
of Bob’s qubit after this measurement ?
(c) Suppose Alice had performed the operations in (b) in the opposite order i.e. first
measured σxeigenvalue +1, and then applied the magnetic field. What would
then be the state of Bob’s qubit at the end ?
Useful info:
The Hadamard operation His defined by H|0i= (|0i+|1i)/2
and H|1i= (|0i−|1i)/2.
The cNOT operation, with first qubit the control qubit, is defined by C|00i=
|00i,C|01i=|01i,C|10i=|11i, and C|11i=|10i.
2. A non-relativistic, spinless particle of mass mis placed in a box with potential V(x)=0
for 0 < x < L. We will have V(x) = for x < 0 and x>Lfor all times t.
(a) What are the energies, En, and eigenfunctions ψn(x) ? Here n= 1,2,3,4. . ..
(b) At time t= 0, the particle is in the ground state ψ1(x). For times 0 < t < T, the
potential is changed to
V(x) = (0,0< x < L/2
V0, L/2< x < L ,0< t < T, (1)
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Harvard University

Physics 143b: Quantum Mechanics II

Practice Final exam

  1. We refer to the states of a qubit using the eigenstates |↑〉, |↓〉 of σz^ , which we write as | 0 〉, | 1 〉 respectively. (a) Two qubits are initialized in the state | 0 , 0 〉. A Hadamard operation is applied on the first qubit, followed by a cNOT operation (with the first qubit as the control qubit); see definitions below. What is the final quantum state of the qubits? (b) After the operations in (a), Alice takes the first qubit, and Bob takes the second one. Alice then applies a magnetic field B on her qubit in the z direction for a time T (this is described by the Hamiltonian HAlice = −Bσz^ ). Finally Alice measures the value of σx^ on her qubit and finds the value +1. What is the state of Bob’s qubit after this measurement? (c) Suppose Alice had performed the operations in (b) in the opposite order i.e. first measured σx^ eigenvalue +1, and then applied the magnetic field. What would then be the state of Bob’s qubit at the end? Useful info: - The Hadamard operation H is defined by H | 0 〉 = (| 0 〉 + | 1 〉)/√ 2 and H | 1 〉 = (| 0 〉 − | 1 〉)/
  • The cNOT operation, with first qubit the control qubit, is defined by C | 00 〉 = | 00 〉, C | 01 〉 = | 01 〉, C | 10 〉 = | 11 〉, and C | 11 〉 = | 10 〉.
  1. A non-relativistic, spinless particle of mass m is placed in a box with potential V (x) = 0 for 0 < x < L. We will have V (x) = ∞ for x < 0 and x > L for all times t. (a) What are the energies, En, and eigenfunctions ψn(x)? Here n = 1, 2 , 3 , 4.. .. (b) At time t = 0, the particle is in the ground state ψ 1 (x). For times 0 < t < T , the potential is changed to

V (x) =

{ 0 , 0 < x < L/ 2 V 0 , L/ 2 < x < L ,^0 < t < T,^ (1)

where V 0 is small, and the potential returns to V (x) = 0 for t > T. What is the probability that a measurement of the energy of the particle at some time t > T yields the value E 2? You need only determine this to order V 02 , using time-dependent perturbation theory. (c) Now consider instead the situation in which the particle was in the state ψ 1 (x) at time t = 0, and for t > 0 the potential in the box became time-dependent but remained space-independent

V (x, t) = f (t) for t > 0 and 0 < x < L (2)

where f (t) is an arbitrary function of time, but is independent of x. What is the exact wavefunction for all t > 0? Do not use perturbation theory here, but obtain the answer by exactly integrating the time-dependent Schr¨odinger equation.

  1. We consider a particle that obeys the one-dimensional Dirac equation ( ¯h i σ

x d dx +^ mσ

z

) Ψ(x) = EΨ(x) (3)

where σx,z^ are the Pauli matrices, the wavefunction Ψ(x) has 2 components, and we have set c = 1. (a) Show that the wavefunction of a particle with energy E = √p^2 + m^2 can be written as Ψ(x) =

( cos(θ/2) sin(θ/2)

) eipx/¯h^ (4) where tan θ = p/m. Here, and below, we assume that the symbol p is positive, so that Eq. (4) represents a particle moving to the right. (b) Similarly show that the wavefunction of a particle with momentum −p i.e. a particle moving to the left, is

Ψ(x) =

( cos(θ/2) − sin(θ/2)

) e−ipx/¯h^ (5)

(c) As shown in the class notes, the current carried by such a particle is J = Ψ†σxΨ. Determine J for the states in (a) and (b). Interpret your result in terms of the group velocity of a wave packet.