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PHTLS 10th Edition Pre-Test: Questions and Verified Answers, Exams of Nursing

A pre-test for the phtls 10th edition certification, covering a range of topics related to trauma care. It includes 50 multiple-choice questions with verified answers, offering a valuable resource for students preparing for the exam. The questions cover various aspects of trauma management, including airway management, shock, spinal immobilization, and secondary brain injury.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 12/11/2024

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PHTLS 10TH EDITION PRE-TEST
Questions and Verified Answers
100% Guarantee Pass
With 50 Questions and Answers
1. When caring for a trauma patient, a principle is what is necessary for patient
improvement or survival. A preference is how the principle is achieved and
depends upon four factors. The
factors used to establish the preference in treating the patient include all except
a) Condition of the patient
b) Equipment available
c) Situation that exists
d) Research information
Ans>> Research information
2. Approximately 20% of all child abuse is the result of intentional burning.The
majority of the children intentionally burned are of what age?
a) 10 to 12 years of age
b) 5 to 6 years of age
c) 1 to 2 years of age
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PHTLS 10TH EDITION PRE-TEST

Questions and Verified Answers

100% Guarantee Pass

With 50 Questions and Answers

  1. When caring for a trauma patient, a principle is what is necessary for patient improvement or survival. A preference is how the principle is achieved and depends upon four factors. The factors used to establish the preference in treating the patient include all except a) Condition of the patient b) Equipment available c) Situation that exists d) Research information Ans>> Research information
  2. Approximately 20% of all child abuse is the result of intentional burning.The majority of the children intentionally burned are of what age? a) 10 to 12 years of age b) 5 to 6 years of age c) 1 to 2 years of age

2 / 9 d) Less than 1 year of age Ans>> 1 to 2 years of age

  1. In addition to glucose, what is required to maintain the metabolic processes of life and energy production? a) Carbon monoxide b) Krebs cells c) Lymphocytes d) Oxygen Ans>> Oxygen
  2. You respond to a patient who has sustained a stab wound to the left upper thorax. She is barely responsive, pale and diaphoretic. Which of the following is the most appropriate for transport? a) Stair chair b) Long board with spinal motion restriction c) Scoop stretcher d) Short immobilization device Ans>> Scoop stretcher
  3. Units responding to a motor vehicle accident on the highway should con- sider which of the following as part of their pre-arrival assessment? a) Calling for more units to respond b) Weather conditions

4 / 9 c) Trauma jaw thrust d) Oropharyngeal airway Ans>> Trauma jaw thrust

  1. When verifying ET tube placement on a perfusing patient, the "gold stan- dard" of monitoring is considered to be? a) Colorimetric carbon dioxide detector b) Pulse oximetry c) Listening to lung sounds d) Waveform capnography Ans>> Waveform capnography
  2. A patient presents with a blunt trauma injury to the chest. On exam, he has absent breath sounds on one side of his chest and respiratory distress. Which additional sign would indicate that the patient has a tension pneumothorax? a) Distended neck veins b) Inspiratory wheezing c) narrowed pulse pressure d) Tracheal deviation towards the side of injury Ans>> Distended neck veins
  3. Hemostatic agents should be used for excessive bleeding when direct pressure alone does not work.The proper way to use most hemostatic agents is which of the following?

5 / 9 a) Placing the agent around the edges of the wound b) Placing the agent properly into the wound and holding direct pressure c) Only using it after a tourniquet has been applied for 10 minutes d) Hemostatic agents should never be used unless you have a fall in blood pressure Ans>> Placing the agent properly into the wound and holding direct pressure

  1. Of the following, which is a preventable cause of secondary brain injury addressable during the transport phase? a) Intraparenchymal hemorrhage b) Systemic hypoxia c) Intracranial hematomas d) Herniation syndromes Ans>> Systemic hypoxia
  2. You are called to treat a patient who was knocked unconscious when he slipped and fell on a wet floor, striking his head. It is now several hours later. He is awake but confused, does not recall the incident, and is vomiting with a headache. Which of the following injuries is most likely? a) Brain herniation b) Intraabdominal hemorrhage c) Diffuse axonal injury d) Concussion

7 / 9 d) A higher incidence of sepsis in the ICU Ans>> Worsening coagulopathy

  1. The secondary survey should be accomplished a) Never on a critical patient b) Before transport c) When time and situation allow d) Before moving the patient Ans>> When time and situation allow
  2. When approaching a trauma patient, what is the first assessment that must be made? a) Exsanguinating hemorrhage b) Scene safety c) Airway d) Breathing Ans>> Scene safety
  3. The most common type of shock resulting from trauma is? a) Neurogenic b) Septic c) Spinal d) Hemorrhagic Ans>> Hemorrhagic

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  1. Which of the following best guides the decision to provide spinal immobi- lization? a) History and complaint b) Obvious signs of associated injury c) Patient's age and presence of pressure sores d) Mechanism alone Ans>> History and complaint
  2. A 38-year-old male sustains a large wound to his right thigh while at work. Which of the following actions is the most important initial step? a) Obtain IV access and infuse crystalloid b) Administer supplemental oxygen c) Hemorrhage control d) Rapid transport Ans>> Hemorrhage control
  3. You respond to a local bar for an unconscious person. On arrival, you are met by a police officer who reports that one of their "regular alcoholics" was found in the alley behind the bar. On exam, you note the smell of an alcoholic beverage as well as the following Patient flexes his arms to painful stimuli, has bilateral fixed and dilated pupils, irregular respirations at 12 breaths per minute and a BP of 210/100. What condition do you suspect? a) Subarachnoid hemorrhage b) Alcohol poisoning c) Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm

10 / 9 b) Heart rate of 80 c) Respirations of 18 d) GCS of 15 Ans>> Depressed level of cognition

  1. Which best describes the goal of airway management in a trauma patient? a) Perform complex airway maneuvers b) Perform a surgical cricothyrotomy c) Provide for adequate exchange of oxygen and CO d) Perform RSI Ans>> Provide for adequate exchange of oxygen and CO
  2. What is the most common cause of airway obstruction in the unresponsive trauma patient? a) Blood b) Teeth c) Tongue d) Vomitus Ans>> Tongue
  3. While caring for a patient who was involved in an altercation, the patient vomits, causing his airway to become totally obstructed with vomitus and blood. What is the most important action? a) Performing an RSI b) Performing a head-tilt chin lift c) Intubating d) Suctioning the airway

11 / 9 Ans>> Suctioning the airway

  1. When energy produced by the cells occurs during a state of adequate oxygenation, it is referred to as which of the following conditions? a) Aerobic metabolism b) Anaerobic metabolism c) Lactic acidosis d) Ketosis Ans>> Aerobic metabolism
  2. Which of the following information is assessed during the secondary survey? a) Skin temperature b) Hemorrhage c) Breathing d) Vital signs Ans>> Vital signs
  3. Hyperventilation of a patient with suspected traumatic brain injury should occur when? a) At time of injury b) When signs of impending brain herniation are present c) During a concussion

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  1. You respond to a reported assault at a local bar. On arrival, you find a 46- year-old male in the bathroom floor with snoring respirations at 4 times per minute and obvious facial injuries. Pupils reveal the R pupil is 4mm and the L pupil is 7mm and non-reactive. What is the most appropriate first step? a) Jaw thrust maneuver b) Pharmacologically assisted intubation c) Perform nasotracheal intubation d) Perform a surgical cricothyrotomy Ans>> Jaw thrust maneuver
  2. In a multi-system trauma patient what is considered the best method for confirming proper placement of an endotracheal tube? a) Auscultation of the left upper abdominal quadrant b) Waveform capnography c) Presence of bilateral breath sounds d) Pulse oximetry Ans>> Waveform capnography
  3. What is the most likely source of bleeding in a patient with signs of shock and no obvious injury? a) Femur fracture b) Intra-abdominal injury

14 / 9 c) Severe traumatic brain injury d) Pelvic fracture Ans>> Intra-abdominal injury

  1. Hypoperfusion will affect which of the following organs first? a) Kidney b) GI tract c) Brain d) Liver Ans>> Brain
  2. A 23-year-old male construction worker fell approximately 30 feet from a roof. The patient is unresponsive to all stimuli; his R pupil is 7mm and non- reactive and his L pupil is 3mm. He has irregular respirations at 8 breaths per min.You do not have waveform capnog- raphy, so what is the most appropriate rate of ventilations? a) 30 BPM b) 25 BPM c) 20 BPM d) 12 BPM Ans>> 20 BPM
  3. A 30-year-old male is thrown from his horse, landing on the top rail of a pipe fence and now has a loss of sensation from the nipples down. What level of the spine do you suspect he injured? a) C b) T

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  1. EMS responds to an adult barista with partial-thickness burns to the abdomen and right leg, sustained from a cooking accident. Initial treatment of this injury would include a) Apply antibiotic ointment b) Run copious amounts of room temperature water over the burn c) Cover burned area with dry sterile dressings d) Cover burned area with moist sterile dressings Ans>> Cover burned area with dry sterile dressings
  2. Prehospital providers have treated a sucking chest wound with an occlu- sive dressing. During transport to the hospital, the patient develops increas- ing respiratory distress with increased respirations and absent lung sounds are noted on repeat auscultation. What is the most appropriate next intervention? a) Release and reapply the occlusive dressing b) Perform needle decompression c) Provide positive-pressure ventilation d) Perform endotracheal intubation Ans>> Release and reapply the occlusive dressing
  3. EMS arrives on a scene and finds that emergency medical responders have attempted to immobilize a pediatric patient onto a long backboard. They note that the patient's head is in a flexed position. Which of the following actions is the most appropriate? a) Adjust the cervical collar

17 / 9 b) Logroll patient into a left lateral recumbent position c) Place padding under the patient's head and neck d) Place padding under the patient's torso Ans>> Place padding under the patient's torso

  1. Falls are the most common cause of death in trauma patients over years of age a) 65 b) 75 c) 55 d) 69 Ans>> 75
  2. is the earliest sign of deterioration in a patient with a flail chest. a) Respiratory rate increase b) Oxygen saturation decrease c) Pulse rate increase d) Blood pressure decrease Ans>> Respiratory rate increase
  3. EMS is treating a 24-year-old soccer player who was kicked in the chest. Prehospital providers note paradoxical movement of a portion of the patient's

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  1. Which of the following is a Golden Principle of trauma care? a) Ensure adequate airway and ventilation b) Complete a thorough head-to-toe survey before initiating treatment c) Rescuer safety is secondary to caring for the patient d) Use chilled intravenous fluids to promote hypothermia Ans>> Ensure adequate airway and ventilation
  2. A 30-year-old male is injured in a terror bombing. He experiences traumatic amputation of his left leg at knee level. An improvised tourniquet was put in place by bystanders. The victim is conscious and in severe pain. Your first action should be to do which of the following? a) Provide IV analgesia b) Put on pressure dressing c) Confirm the tourniquet was properly applied d) Check the airway Ans>> Confirm the tourniquet was properly applied