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Pharmacy Law Practice Exam, Exams of Pharmacy

A comprehensive overview of various pharmacy law and regulatory topics, including amendments to the fdca, the prescription drug marketing act, controlled substance regulations, prescription drug labeling requirements, and the authority of different healthcare practitioners. It covers a wide range of questions and answers related to pharmacy practice, with a focus on legal and regulatory compliance. The document could be useful for pharmacy students, pharmacists, and other healthcare professionals seeking to enhance their understanding of the complex legal and regulatory landscape in the pharmaceutical industry.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 08/09/2024

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Pharmacy Law Practice Exam
Questions and the correct marking
scheme
Which FDCA amendment exempted certain drugs from the "adequate directions for
use" labeling requirement if they bear "Rx only" on their labels?
a. Durham Humphrey
b. Kefauver-Harris
c. Prescription Drug Marketing
d. Waxman-Hatch - Correct Answer a. Durham Humphrey
The FDCA defines a "new drug" as a previously approved drug entity with a new:
A. route of administration.
B. indication for use.
C. combination of ingredients.
D. a and b
E. a, b and c. - Correct Answer e. route of administration, indication for use,
combination of ingredients.
Which of the following circumstances would be considered "adulteration" under the
FDCA?
a. A drug is prepared and packaged under unsanitary conditions.
b. The drug's manufacturing procedures do not conform to GMP standards.
c. The drug is subject to the Poison Prevention Packaging Act and is not packaged
accordingly.
D. a and b
E. a, b and c - Correct Answer d. A drug is prepared and packaged under
unsanitary conditions, the drug's manufacturing procedures do not conform to GMP
standards.
Which of the following circumstances would be considered "misbranding" under the
FDCA?
a. A drug's label or labeling is false or misleading.
b. A prescription for a legend drug is refilled without the prescriber's authorization.
c. A drug is subject to the Poison Prevention Packaging Act is not packaged
accordingly.
D. a and b
E. a, b and c - Correct Answer e. A drug's label or labeling is false or misleading, A
prescription for a legend drug is refilled without the prescriber's authorization, A drug is
subject to the Poison Prevention Packaging Act is not packaged accordingly.
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Pharmacy Law Practice Exam

Questions and the correct marking

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Which FDCA amendment exempted certain drugs from the "adequate directions for use" labeling requirement if they bear "Rx only" on their labels? a. Durham Humphrey b. Kefauver-Harris c. Prescription Drug Marketing d. Waxman-Hatch - Correct Answer a. Durham Humphrey The FDCA defines a "new drug" as a previously approved drug entity with a new: A. route of administration. B. indication for use. C. combination of ingredients. D. a and b E. a, b and c. - Correct Answer e. route of administration, indication for use, combination of ingredients. Which of the following circumstances would be considered "adulteration" under the FDCA? a. A drug is prepared and packaged under unsanitary conditions. b. The drug's manufacturing procedures do not conform to GMP standards. c. The drug is subject to the Poison Prevention Packaging Act and is not packaged accordingly. D. a and b E. a, b and c - Correct Answer d. A drug is prepared and packaged under unsanitary conditions, the drug's manufacturing procedures do not conform to GMP standards. Which of the following circumstances would be considered "misbranding" under the FDCA? a. A drug's label or labeling is false or misleading. b. A prescription for a legend drug is refilled without the prescriber's authorization. c. A drug is subject to the Poison Prevention Packaging Act is not packaged accordingly. D. a and b E. a, b and c - Correct Answer e. A drug's label or labeling is false or misleading, A prescription for a legend drug is refilled without the prescriber's authorization, A drug is subject to the Poison Prevention Packaging Act is not packaged accordingly.

The purpose of DESI was to prove efficacy of prescription and OTC drugs that were marketed: A. between 1938 and 1962. B. before 1938. C. after 1962. D. none of the above. - Correct Answer a. between 1938 and 1962.

  1. The label on the container of an OTC drug intended for sale directly to a patient must include: A. adequate directions for safe and effective use. B. cautions and warnings needed for the protection of the user. C. net contents of the package D. name and address of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor E. all of the above f. only a, b and c - Correct Answer e. adequate directions for safe and effective use; cautions and warnings needed for the protection of the user; net contents of the package; name and address of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor Which of the below is (are) officially recognized by the FDCA? a. USP/DI b. USP/NF c. Homeopathic Pharmacopeia D. a and b E. b and c - Correct Answer e. USP/NF, Homeopathic Pharmacopeia According to the Prescription Drug marketing Act of 1987, no person may sell, purchase, or trade: A. prescription drug samples. b. OTC drug samples. C. starter packages of prescription drugs. D. a and b E. a, b, and c - Correct Answer a. prescription drug samples. When a pharmacy repackages a drug product in unit-dose packages, a record should be maintained which includes among other things the: A. pharmacy's identification number if different from the manufacturer's lot number. B. product's manufacturer or supplier. C. expiration date of the original container. D. a and b e. a, b, and c - Correct Answer e. pharmacy's identification number if different from the manufacturer's lot number, product's manufacturer or supplier, expiration date of the original container. Which of the following situations may require a pharmacy to register with the FDA, be subject to FDA inspections, and comply with CGMP?

d. July 1, 2011 e. January 2, 2013 - Correct Answer c. January 1, 2012 Which of the following statements is accurate concerning NDC numbers? a. The FDA requires all commercial products to carry NDC numbers. b. NDC number identifies the drug, strength, and size of package and is frequently used for third-party claims submission. c. An NDC indicates that the drug has received NDA approval. D. a and b E. a, b, and c - Correct Answer d. The FDA requires all commercial products to carry NDC numbers; NDC number identifies the drug, strength, and size of package and is frequently used for third-party Claims submission According to the FDA Compliance Policy Guide, which of the following pharmacy activities does the FDA consider to be traditional pharmacy activity that is NOT subject to FDA enforcement? a. Extemporaneously compounding medication on receipt of a valid prescription from a licensed practitioner for an individual patient. b. Compounding a medication from components that have not been determined to meet official compendial requirements. c. Compounding drugs for third parties who resell the drugs to individual patients. d. Compounding drugs that have been withdrawn from the market due to safety concerns - Correct Answer a. extemporaneously compounding medication on receipt of a valid prescription from a licensed practitioner for an individual patient. The FDA has notified Slipshod Pharmaceutical Manufacturer that several lots of their OTC analgesics have been found to be contaminated with digitoxin and present serious threat to patients' safety. The FDA is likely to request that Slipshod announce which class of drug recall? a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV - Correct Answer a. Class I Ipecac syrup, dispensed in a 4 ounce bottle to patient, is considered to be a (n): A. prescription drug and dispensed only upon prescriptive authorization. b. OTC drug and labeled accordingly. c. OTC drug and labeled with specific FDA labeling requirements. - Correct Answer a. prescription drug and dispensed only upon prescriptive authorization. Ipecac syrup, dispensed in 15-30ml unit-dose containers and labeled according to FDA requirements, may be considered: A. prescription only. b. OTC. - Correct Answer b. OTC.

It is within an opthalmologist's scope of practice to prescribe: I. Acetazolamide (Diamox) II. Sodium Sulfacetamide solution 10% III. Oxycodone 2.5mg/APAP 325mg a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III - Correct Answer e. I. Acetazolamide (Diamox) II. Sodium Sulfacetamide solution 10% III. Oxycodone 2.5mg/APAP 325mg The expiration date on the manufacturer's label of a prescription drug is July 2011. The pharmacist should consider the expiration of this drug to be: a. July 1, 2011 b. July 15, 2011 c. July 31, 2011 d August 1, 2011 - Correct Answer c. July 31, 2011 Which of the following has/have the authority to sign a triplicate DEA Form-222 in order to obtain CII drugs from another registrant? a. a pharmacist or non-pharmacist, as designated in a current and properly executed power of attorney. b. the pharmacist or non-pharmacist, who signed the most recent DEA application for a controlled substance registration. c. a pharmacist who has received verbal authorization from the owner or manager of a pharmacy registrant. d. a and b e. a, b and c - Correct Answer d. a pharmacist or non-pharmacist, as designated in a current and properly executed power of attorney; the pharmacist or non-pharmacist, who signed the most recent DEA application for a controlled substance registration. A properly executed power of attorney: a. automatically expires in three years with the registration. b. authorizes an individual to sign any legal document on behalf of the person granting power of attorney. c. must be notarized. d. must be photocopied and the photocopy sent to the regional DEA office. e. none of the above. - Correct Answer e. none of the above. Annually, a pharmacy dispenses by prescription 100,000 dosage units of controlled substances. Without obtaining registration as a distributor, the pharmacy can distribute to other registrants a maximum of how many dosage units? a. 2500

Which of the following are DEA-authorized methods that a pharmacist may use to file hardcopy controlled and noncontrolled substance prescriptions? I. All prescriptions are filed together with CII prescriptions stamped with a red "C". II. CII prescriptions in one file; CIII, CIV, and CV prescriptions in another file; Non- controlled prescriptions in a third file. III. CII prescriptions in one file; CIII, CIV and CV and non-controlled prescriptions together. a. I only b. III only c. I & II d. II and III e. I, II, & III - Correct Answer d. II. CII prescriptions in one file; CIII, CIV, and CV prescriptions in another file; Non- controlled prescriptions in a third file. III. CII prescriptions in one file; CIII, CIV and CV and non-controlled prescriptions together. After a pharmacy purchaser completes a DEA Form-222, which copy does the pharmacy retain? a. Copy 1 b. Copy 2 c. Copy 3 d. Copies 1 and 2 - Correct Answer c. Copy 3 Under which of the following circumstances does the pharmacist need to notify the DEA? a. The pharmacy was robbed and CIIs and 222 forms were taken. b. The pharmacy is planning to move to a new location. c. The owner (sole proprietor) of a community pharmacy dies. d. All of the above. - Correct Answer d. The pharmacy was robbed and CIIs and 222 forms were taken; The pharmacy is planning to move to a new location; The owner (sole proprietor) of a community pharmacy dies. Which of the following statements is(are) accurate concerning the dispensing of OTC CV cough preparations? a. The customer must be at least 18 years old. b. The pharmacy technician may complete the entire transaction, including the dispensing, under the supervision of a pharmacist. c. The purchaser must present suitable identification to the pharmacist if he or she is unknown to the pharmacist. d. a and c - Correct Answer d. The customer must be at least 18 years old ; The purchaser must present suitable identification to the pharmacist if he or she is unknown to the pharmacist.

Who has primary authority on the federal level for the scheduling, rescheduling, or de- scheduling of controlled substances? a. DEA b. FDA c. Attorney General d. Attorney General in conjunction with the Secretary of Health and Human Services - Correct Answer d. Attorney General in conjunction with the Secretary of Health and Human Services If a pharmacist uses the 2-drawer manual filing system (not the computer) for storing controlled substance prescriptions as the primary method, which of the following schedules of medication should be marked with a red "C"? a. All CIIs b. CIII, CIV, and CVs c. CIII and CIV only d. All non-controlled prescriptions - Correct Answer b. CIII, CIV, and CVs On a controlled substance inventory, opened containers with which of the following drugs must be counted exactly? a. CIIs b. CII, CIII, and CIVs in any size of container c. All controlled substances d. Only CII, CIII, and CIVs in opened containers - Correct Answer a. CIIs When a DEA inspector conducts an audit of your controlled substances, what percent error are you allowed? a. 0% b. 3% c. 5% d. 10% - Correct Answer a. 0% Dispensing a C-V, OTC cough syrup containing codeine is limited to which of the following? a. 120 ml within 48 hours b. 180 ml within 48 hours c. 240 ml within 48 hours d. No limitation if Barb Woods needs it! - Correct Answer a. 120 ml within 48 hours A patient requests a refill of his prescription for diphenoxylate 2.5mg/Atropine sulfate 0.025mg. What are the limitations for refilling this prescription (with appropriate authorization) in Kansas? a. no refills permitted b. maximum of 5 refills c. maximum of 5 refills or 6 months, whichever comes first

The authority to grant practitioners a license to prescribe drugs resides with: a. the federal government b. the state government c. the local district court d. none of the above - Correct Answer b. the state government The statement: "Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the person for whom it was prescribed." Must appear on prescription medication containers which contain controlled substances in the following schedules EXCEPT: a. CIII b. CV c. CII d. CIV e. It must be on containers of all of the above schedules. - Correct Answer b. CV When a manufacturer refuses to recall its violative drug product at the request of the FDA, which of the following legal remedies is available to the FDA? a. Publicity b. Injunction c. FDA-initiated recall d. Seizure of the product - Correct Answer d. Seizure of the product (New Law - FDA can order a recall??) Pharmacist Van received a methylphenidate prescription that was dated March 1, 2011. On what date is this prescription no longer valid in Kansas? a. March 8, 2011 b. April 15, 2011 c. June 2, 2011 d. September 2, 2011 - Correct Answer d. September 2, 2011 The minimum necessary requirement for disclosing PHI does NOT apply to: a. Payment for services b. Marketing activities c. Treatment activities d. a and c - Correct Answer c. Treatment activities Dr. Johns, a DEA-registered internist, calls on Friday evening requesting that you dispense #15 Levo-Dromoran tablets to Susan Folkes. You are satisfied that the situation is an emergency. Dr. Johns must supply you with a signed prescription within how much time? a. 72 hours b. 96 hours c. 5 days d. 7 days - Correct Answer d. 7 days

Dr. Johns would also like to continue Susan on this medication for two more weeks. Which of the following is true? a. He may write on the prescription he sends to you for the emergency period for a total of 45 doses. b. He may authorize and you may fill 2 refills on the emergency prescription you wrote. c. He must give you two prescriptions: one covering #15 doses for the emergency time and one for the additional doses. d. You may alter the emergency prescription to reflect the additional doses and have him sign his name on it. - Correct Answer c. He must give you two prescriptions: one covering #15 doses for the emergency time and one for the additional doses. Which items is(are) included in the definition of "unprofessional conduct" stated in the Kansas Pharmacy Practice Act? a. Fraud when applying for registration or a permit. b. Intentionally falsifying or altering prescriptions. c. Unlawful diversion of drugs to others. d. Intentionally adulterating any drug. e. All of the above. - Correct Answer e. Fraud when applying for registration or a permit; Intentionally falsifying or altering prescriptions; Unlawful diversion of drugs to others; Intentionally adulterating any drug. Which of the following are true concerning pharmacists' continuing education requirements in Kansas? I. One CEU is equal to one contact hour. II. Thirty contact hours are required biennially for re-licensure. III. Failure to supply the Board of Pharmacy evidence of adequate CE will cause one's license to become inactive. a. I only b. III only c. I & II only d. II & III only e. I, II, & III - Correct Answer d. II. Thirty contact hours are required biennially for re-licensure. III. Failure to supply the Board of Pharmacy evidence of adequate CE will cause one's license to become inactive. According to DEA regulations, all of the following information is required for recording an OTC CV sale, EXCEPT: a. name and address of purchaser b. name and quantity of drug

Identify which of the following functions can be performed by a Kansas pharmacy technician. I. Read and interpret the prescription II. Personally offer to counsel each patient with each new prescription III. Affix the prescription label to the drug container a. I only b. III only c. I & II only d. II & III only e. I, II, & III - Correct Answer III. Affix the prescription label to the drug container Pharmacist Erickson is the pharmacist in charge of a community pharmacy that offers on-premises pharmacist services for 55 hours per week. The local county hospital has requested that Jones also become the PIC for the county hospital pharmacy that has on-premises pharmacist services for 20 hours per week. May pharmacist Erickson legally be PIC at both registered sites? a. yes b. no - Correct Answer a. yes A physician's assistant may legally perform which of the following activities under written protocol with a responsible physician? I. May directly administer a prescription drug. II. May prescribe a CII drug by oral or telephonic communication in an emergency. III. May prescribe a CIII, CIV, or CV drug in writing. a. I only b. III only c. I & II only d. II & III only e. I, II, & III - Correct Answer e. I. May directly administer a prescription drug. II. May prescribe a CII drug by oral or telephonic communication in an emergency. III. May prescribe a CIII, CIV, or CV drug in writing. The reference library of a community pharmacy is required to include all of the following items EXCEPT: a. Medical dictionary b. Recognized reference in drug interactions c. Recognized reference on compounding and manufacturing d. Copy of the Kansas Controlled Substance Act and regulations - Correct Answer c. Recognized reference on compounding and manufacturing What is the maximum number of pseudoephedrine HCl 60mg tablets a pharmacist may legally sell to one purchaser in one day if he/she presents the required identification? a. 36 b. 60 c. 73

d. 146 - Correct Answer c. 73 Which of the below practitioners may apply for and receive a DEA registration number in Kansas? a. Dentists b. Surgeons c. Optometrists d. a and b only e. a, b and c - Correct Answer e. Dentists; Surgeons; Optometrists A pharmacist must send a copy of each of the following documents to the regional DEA office EXCEPT: I. Power of Attorney II. Most recent controlled substance inventory III. State pharmacy registration a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III - Correct Answer e. I. Power of Attorney II. Most recent controlled substance inventory III. State pharmacy registration All of the following practice activities must be performed by a licensed pharmacist EXCEPT: a. Performing drug regimen reviews. b. Interpreting and verifying patient medication records. c. Prepackaging medications in unit-dose containers. d. Ensuring the proper selection of prescription drugs, devices or suppliers. - Correct Answer c. Prepackaging medications in unit-dose containers. In Kansas, a patient's medication profile record in a community pharmacy is required to contain all of the following information EXCEPT: a. Name and address of the patient b. Patient's age c. Initial date of dispensing and prescription number d. Name of the dispensing pharmacist e. Drug allergies and sensitivities - Correct Answer b. Patient's age Which of the following individuals are required to be identified by nametags if performing pharmacy-related duties? a. Pharmacist b. Pharmacy Technician c. Pharmacy student and intern

III. Allowing a pharmacy clerk to call out the names of waiting patients to pick up their prescriptions. a. I only b. III only c. I & II only d. II & III only e. I, II, & III - Correct Answer c. I. Allowing a pharmaceutical sales representative to peruse your prescription files to ascertain of a certain doctor is prescribing a new antidepressant. II. Providing a husband with a list of drug products and their therapeutic uses that his wife received last year. The term "preceptor" in Kansas is defined as a licensed pharmacist who possesses at least ___ years of experience as a registered pharmacist and who supervises students obtaining their required pharmaceutical experience. - Correct Answer 2 years Prescriptions in Kansas must be kept on file for __ years. - Correct Answer 5 years The total number of dosage units of all controlled substances distributed to DEA registrants by a practitioner during the twelve-month calendar year in which the practitioner is registered to dispense cannot exceed ___ percent of the total number of dosage units of all controlled substances distributed and dispensed during this time period. - Correct Answer 5% A Kansas-licensed pharmacist who changes his/her residential address must notify the Board of Pharmacy within what period of time? - Correct Answer 30 days A pharmacist in charge in Kansas must successfully pass the PIC exam with a score of at least ____% within ___ days of the change in the pharmacy registration at the location. - Correct Answer 85% ; 30 days Incident reports must be kept on file for __ years in Kansas. - Correct Answer 5 years Each registrant shall notify the executive secretary of the Board in writing of any change in majority ownership of the operation for which the registration was issued within ___ days after the date the change in ownership becomes effective. - Correct Answer 5 days A treating physician shall not prescribe dispense or prescribe more than a ___ - day supply of controlled substances to treat obesity for a patient at one time. - Correct Answer 30 day supply A vaccination protocol that establishes what vaccines a pharmacist may administer, procedures for record keeping, and emergency response is considered valid for what period of time? - Correct Answer 2 years

The emergency room of a hospital may provide an interim supply of prepackaged drugs to an outpatient on order of a physician when a pharmacist is not on the premises. The interim supply is limited to what quantity? - Correct Answer Sufficient supply until a prescription can be filled Dolittle Pharmacy needs to order the following medications from their drug wholesaler. diazepam 10mg tablets 2 bottles of 100 codeine sulfate 30mg tabs 4 bottles of 100 Fioricet tabs 1 bottle of 100 Fiorinal tabs 2 bottles of 100 Dilaudid 2mg/ml inj. 5 boxes of 25 amps methadone 5mg tabs 2 bottles of 100 Tylox caps. 1 bottle of 100 Lomotil liquid 2.5mg/5ml 1 bottle of 60ml Which of the above drugs must be ordered from the wholesaler using a DEA-222 form?

  • Correct Answer codeine sulfate tabs Dilaudid inj. methadone tabs Tylox In Kansas, a preceptor may supervise not more than ___ (how many) pharmacy students or interns at any time? - Correct Answer 2 A pharmacy must limit the OTC sales of pseudoephedrine tablets to no more than ____ grams (of base) per purchaser per 30 days. - Correct Answer 9 grams The ratio of pharmacy technicians to pharmacists must not exceed ___ unless two of the technicians hold certification approved by the board, in which case the ratio of technicians to pharmacists may be ___. - Correct Answer 2:1; 3: A prescriber may issue multiple prescriptions authorizing a patient to receive a total of up to a ___-day supply of CII medication providing the prescriber writes specific directions on each prescription indicating the earliest date it may be filled and no pharmacist fills it before that date. - Correct Answer 90 day In Kansas, revocation of one's pharmacist license is for all time, except that any time after ___(amount of time) the licensee may reapply to the Executive Secretary of the Board of Pharmacy for reinstatement. - Correct Answer 1 year According to Kansas law, syringes may be sold OTC but are considered to be ____ [(see definition 21-36a01(f)(11) and 21-36a10(b)] - Correct Answer Drug paraphernalia