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Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice – TWU | NURS 5663 Final Exam 2025.
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Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice – TWU | NURS 5663 Final Exam 2025.
patient about the importance of a. Having routine renal and hepatic test b. Taking the medication on a daily basis. c. Reporting alopecia and rash d. Limiting folic acid consumption.
who is experiencing major depression. When conducting a pretreatment health history. You learn the patient has a recent history of alcohol abuse. Which SNRI would be contraindicated for this patient? a. Veniafaxine (Effexor XR) b. Lexapro c. Pristia d. Cymbalta
a. Aimotriptan b. Zolmitriptan c. Ibuprofen
serotonin syndrome in a patient prescribed rizatriptan (Maxalt) for migraine headache? a. Inderall b. Topamax c. Dtexor XR d. Valprox acid
generalized tonic - clonic seizure. He has no prior history of seizures and his neurological exam is completely normal. His back pain is affecting his mood, and he feels depressed. Which of the following would be the best treatment option? a. Ultram b. Start Tegretol for the seizures c. Start welbutrin for depression d. Make no changes in medications and carefully monitor
epileptic seizures? a. Tell the pt to take the medication with meal b. Educate the patient about
any medications except for acetaminophen for an occasional headache. Which of the following will be most important to monitor? a. Heart rhythm b. Vision c. Complete blood count d. Rash
weeks with no response. The patient has no other complications.Which of the following is the most reasonable treatment option? a. Change to veniafaxine b. Add fluoxetine c. Decrease the dose of sertraline d. Increase the sode of sertraline
a. Escitalopram(Lexapro) b. aloprazolam(Xanax) c. buspirone(Buspar) d. Lmipramine(Tofraril)
year. He reports to the clinic today with complaints of increased anxiety., agitation, and nausea. He reports taking sertraline most days but ran out 4 days ago. What is most likely going on with PJ? a. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome b. Serotonin syndrome c. SAD relapse d. Discontinuation syndrome
other potential sleep disorders and want to start him on drug therapy for his insomnia. Which of the following would be the best treatment option? a. Amitriptyline 10 mg at bedtime b. Zalepion 5 mg at bedtime c. Flurazepam 15 mg at bedtime d. Zolpidem tartrate 3.75 mg SL at bedtime
medications used for the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? a. Guanfacine b. Dextroamphetamine c. Atomoxetine d. Clonidine
a. Lisinopril(Zestrill) b. Rosuvastatin (Crestor) c. Metformin (Glucophage) d. Dapagliflozin (Farxigs)
a. Hypotension b. Increase the risk of genitourinary infection c. Weight loss d. Hypokalemia
hypothyroidism? a. Serum free T4 test b. Thyrotropin- releasing hormone(TRH) c. Serum iodine level d. Thyroid- stimulating Hormone( TSH)
a. Potential side effects include hepatitis and agranulocytosis b. New steady state level of T4 are reached approximately 6 days after a dosage change c. It produces stable serum levels of both T4 and T d. Its absorption is unaffected by administration with food.
a. Fexofenadine(allegra) b. Diphenhydramine(Benadryl) c. Cetirizine(Zyrtec) d. Hydroxyzine (Atarax)
a. Subcutaneous epinephrine (1:1000) 0.6 mg then repeat every 5 min as needed b. Intramuscular epinephrine (1:1000) 0.3 mg then repeat every 5 min as needed c. Intramuscular epinephrine (1:1000) 0.15mg then repeat every15 min as needed d. Intravenous epinephrine 1 to 4 mcg/min and titrate to response
male with renal impairment? a. Lopinavir/ritonavir(kaletra) b. Emtricitabine (Emtriva) c. Emtricitabine/tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (Truvada) d. Emtricitabine /tenofovir alafenamide ( Descovy)
following explains why this regiment is unlikely to be therapeutically effective? a. Lamivudine is not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract. b. Resistance to HIV is likely to develop from the use of single agent c. Lamivudine is not active against HIV. d. Lamivudine is inactivated by hepatic cytochrome P450 isoenzymes.
initiated with intravenous heparin. 12 hours later, his a PTT is greater than 150 seconds and he is
noted to have bright red blood per rectum. Which of the following is the best course action in the management of the patient? a. Hold heparin give recombinant
mechanism of action of the oral anticoagulant? a. It directly inhibits thrombin b. It indirectly inhibits factor Xa by activating antithrombin c. It blocks the synthesis of active clotting factors d. It directly inhibits factor Xa.
for a patient with pernicious anemia? a. Oral b. There is no preferred route of administration c. Parenteral (either intramuscular or deep subcutaneous injection) d. Intranasal
deficiency? a. 1mg b. 1200mg c. 4ng d. 4000mcg
a. MMR b. DTap c. Hepatitis B d. Influenza (inactive)
vaccine? a. Anaphylaxis to a previous influenza vaccine b. Pregnancy c. Intolerance to eating eggs d. Breast feeding
disgusting habit. Which response to the spouse is accurate? a. Nicotine lowers blood pressure. b. Nicotine settles the stomach and increased appetite c. Nicotine increases alertness and promotes dopamine release. d. Nicotine causes relaxation and helps with sleep.
with a nicotine patch. The patient asks why the varenicline is necessary. Which statement is correct? a. It helps reduce anxiety and other withdrawal symptoms b. It will help reduce the likelihood of addiction to the patch. c. It helps patients experiencing withdrawal to sleep better d. The drug blocks nicotine access to pleasure receptors
a. Decrease her risk of endometrial cancer. b. Prevent deep vein thrombosis(DVT) c. Increase bone resorption to prevent fractures d. Lower her risk of myocardial infarction(MI)
symptoms and is discussing estrogen therapy(ET) with you. The patient is concerned about adverse effects of ET. You explained to her that: a. An estrogen-progesterone product will reduce side effects. b. Transdermal preparations have fewer side effects. c. Side effects of ET are uncommon among women of her age. d. An intravaginal preparation may be best for her.
headaches. What should you tell this patient? a. These symptoms indicate serious toxicity. b. The medication should be taken after a meal to reduce symptoms. c. You are probably not taking the drug correctly. d. These are common side effects of this drug.
You should teach the patient to take the drug: a. For a maximum of 1 to 2 years. b. While sitting upright with plenty of water. c. With coffee or orange juice to increase absorption. d. At bedtime to minimize adverse effects.
infection. What education should be provided to this patient? a. The medication should be taken twice daily for 2 weeks. b. The applicator for the vaginal gel should be washed after each application. c. Male partners should always be treated even if they are asymptomatic. d. The infection is not completely eliminated with the medication.
condition is this agent used to treat? a. Haemophilus ducreyi b. Gardnerella vaginalis c. Trichomonas vaginalis d. Chlamydia trachomotis
Cost - Benefit Analysis / Used to determine the overall Cost-Minimization Analysis / evaluates the cost of two or Cost- Effectiveness Analysis/ determine the best program Cost- Utility Analysis /measure data in terms of
harm? a. Inject 10 units subcutaneously daily b. Inject 10 units SQ daily
c. Inject 10 units subcutaneously daily d. Inject 10 U daily
treating this patient? a. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs b. Colchicine c. Urate-lowering drugs d. Glucocorticoids
suspect Osteoarthritis from the wear and tear during her 10 - year gymnastic competition career. She is 15 week gestation. Which of the following is contraindicated in this patient? a. indomethacin(indocin) b. acetaminophen (Tylenol) c. Intraarticular steroid injections d. Warm moist heat
complaint of a swollen, painful right toe. Labs reveal a uric acid level of 13 mg /dL and CrCl- 30mL/ min. Which of the following is the best treatment option for his acute gout attack? a. Probenecid (Benemid) 500mg twice daily b. Colchicine 1.2mg now. Then 0.6mg one hour later if no relief c. Allopurinol 300mg twice daily d. Indomethacin 100 mg twice daily