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A series of multiple-choice questions and answers covering key concepts in pharmacology, specifically focusing on chapters 1-8. It provides a valuable resource for students to test their understanding of drug administration, pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, and other essential principles. The questions address various aspects of drug therapy, including drug interactions, adverse effects, and patient education.
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The nurse is teaching a patient how a medication works to treat an illness. To do this, the nurse will rely on knowledge of which topic? CORRECT ANSWERS✅ Pharmacotherapeutics Pharmacotherapeutics is the study of the use of drugs to diagnose, treat, and prevent conditions. Clinical pharmacology is concerned with all aspects of drug- human interactions. Drug efficacy measures the extent to which a given drug causes an intended effect. Pharmacokinetics is the study of the impact of the body on a drug. What is a desired outcome when a drug is described as easy to administer? CORRECT ANSWERS✅ It enhances patient adherence to the drug regimen. A major benefit of drugs that are easy to administer is that patients taking them are more likely to comply with the drug regimen. Drugs that are easy to give may have the other attributes listed, but those properties are independent of ease of administration. A patient tells the nurse that an analgesic he will begin taking may cause drowsiness and will decrease pain up to 4 hours at a time. Based on this understanding of the drug's effects by the patient, the nurse will anticipate which outcome? CORRECT ANSWERS✅ Improved compliance with the drug regimen A drug is effective if it produces the intended effects, even if it also produces side effects. Patients who understand both the risks and benefits of taking a medication are more likely to comply with the drug regimen. A patient is using a metered-dose inhaler containing albuterol for asthma. The medication label instructs the patient to administer "2 puffs every 4 hours as needed for coughing or wheezing." The patient reports feeling jittery sometimes when taking the medication, and she doesn't feel that the medication is always
effective. Which action is outside the nurse's scope of practice CORRECT ANSWERS✅ Suggesting that the patient use one puff to reduce side effects It is not within the nurse's scope of practice to change the dose of a medication without an order from a prescriber. Asking the patient to demonstrate inhaler use helps the nurse to evaluate the patient's ability to administer the medication properly and is part of the nurse's evaluation. Assessing tobacco smoke exposure helps the nurse determine whether nondrug therapies, such a smoke avoidance, can be used as an adjunct to drug therapy. Performing a physical assessment helps the nurse evaluate the patient's response to the medication A postoperative patient is being discharged home with acetaminophen/hydrocodone [Lortab] for pain. The patient asks the nurse about using Tylenol for fever. Which statement by the nurse is correct? CORRECT ANSWERS✅ "Taking the two medications together poses a risk of drug toxicity. Tylenol is the trade name and acetaminophen is the generic name for the same medication. It is important to teach patients to be aware of the different names for the same drug to minimize the risk of overdose. Over-the-counter (OTC) medications and prescription medications may be taken together unless significant harmful drug interactions are possible. Even though no drug interactions are at play in this case, both drugs contain acetaminophen, which could lead to toxicity. The nurse is preparing to care for a patient who will be taking an antihypertensive medication. Which action by the nurse is part of the assessment step of the nursing process? CORRECT ANSWERS✅ Questioning the patient about over-the- counter medications The assessment part of the nursing process involves gathering information before beginning treatment, and this includes asking about other medications the patient may be taking. Monitoring serum drug levels, watching for drug interactions, and checking vital signs after giving the medication are all part of the evaluation phase.
the drug from stomach acid and pepsin or to protect the stomach from a drug that can cause gastric upset. Sublingual forms often are used for drugs that undergo rapid inactivation during the first pass through the hepatic circulation so that the drug can be absorbed directly into the systemic circulation. Parenteral routes are more costly and less safe than oral administration and should not be used unless necessary. A sustained-release preparation is used to release the drug into the body over a specific period to reduce the number of daily doses required to sustain therapeutic drug levels. A patient claims to get better effects with a tablet of Brand X of a drug than with a tablet of Brand Y of the same drug. Both brands contain the same amount of the active ingredient. What does the nurse know to be most likely? CORRECT ANSWERS✅ Tablets can differ in composition and can have differing rates of disintegration and dissolution, which can alter the drug's effects in the body. Even if two brands of a drug are chemically equivalent (i.e., they have identical amounts of the same chemical compound), they can have different effects in the body if they differ in bioavailability. Tablets made by different manufacturers contain different binders and fillers, which disintegrate and dissolve at different rates and affect the bioavailability of the drug. Two brands may be chemically equivalent and still differ in bioavailability, which is not determined by the amount of drug in the dose. A patient receives a drug that has a narrow therapeutic range. The nurse administering this medication will expect to do what? CORRECT ANSWERS✅ Monitor plasma drug levels. A drug with a narrow therapeutic range is more difficult to administer safely, because the difference between the minimum effective concentration and the toxic concentration is small. Patients taking these medications must have their plasma drug levels monitored closely to ensure that they are getting an effective dose that is not toxic. Administering medications at longer intervals only increases the time required to reach effective plasma drug levels. Drugs that have a narrow therapeutic range may be given by any route and do not differ from other
medications in the amount of time it takes for them to take effect, which is a function of a drug's half-life and dosing frequency A patient is given a prescription for azithromycin [Zithromax] and asks the nurse why the dose on the first day is twice the amount of the dose on the next 4 days. Which reply by the nurse is correct? CORRECT ANSWERS✅ "A large initial dose helps to get the drug to optimal levels in the body faster. A large initial dose is often used as a loading dose to help get serum drug levels to plateau levels more quickly. Larger doses do not prevent first pass effects in drugs susceptible to this type of metabolism. Tapering of doses sometimes is used to prevent rebound or withdrawal effects and is done by stepping down the amount of drug with each dose. Tubular reabsorption is a process that allows drugs to be reabsorbed from the urine into the blood. A nurse is giving an enteral medication. The patient asks why this method is preferable for this drug. How will the nurse reply? CORRECT ANSWERS✅ "This route is safer, less expensive, and more convenient." Parenteral routes include the intravenous, intramuscular, and subcutaneous routes. Enteral routes include oral administration, including pills and liquid suspensions. Enteral routes are safer, cheaper, and easier to use. Parenteral routes are used when rapid absorption, precise control of plasma drug levels, and prevention of digestive inactivation are important The nurse is preparing to administer penicillin G intramuscularly to a child. The child's parents ask why the drug cannot be given in an oral liquid form. What is the nurse's reply? CORRECT ANSWERS✅ "This drug would be inactivated by enzymes in the stomach." Penicillin G is inactivated by digestive enzymes in the stomach and cannot be given orally. It does not have a narrow therapeutic range.
excreted in the feces. Glucuronidation occurs in the enterohepatic circulation and not in the renal circulation. A patient is receiving intravenous gentamicin. A serum drug test reveals toxic levels. The dosing is correct, and this medication has been tolerated by this patient in the past. Which could be a probable cause of the test result? CORRECT ANSWERS✅ The patient is taking another medication that binds to serum albumin. Gentamicin binds to albumin, but only weakly, and in the presence of another drug that binds to albumin, it can rise to toxic levels in blood serum. A loading dose increases the initial amount of a drug and is used to bring drug levels to the desired plateau more quickly. A drug that is not completely dissolved carries a risk of causing embolism. A drug given at a frequency longer than the drug half-life will likely be at subtherapeutic levels and not at toxic levels. The nurse is caring for a child who has ingested a toxic amount of aspirin. The provider orders an intravenous drug that will increase pH in the blood and urine. The nurse understands that this effect is necessary to: CORRECT ANSWERS✅ increase the urinary excretion of aspirin. The phenomenon of pH-dependent ionization can be used to accelerate renal excretion of drugs. When children have been exposed to toxic amounts of aspirin, they can be treated, in part, by giving an agent that elevates urinary pH, leading to less passive reabsorption of the now ionized molecules of aspirin and, hence, more excretion. Elevating the pH of the blood and urine does not affect absorption in the stomach. Ionization of aspirin does not affect lipid solubility or protein binding. A patient is taking a drug that does not bind to albumin. Which aspect of renal drug excretion is affected by this characteristic? CORRECT ANSWERS✅ Glomerular filtration As blood flows through the glomerular capillaries, fluids and small molecules are forced through the pores of the capillary wall. Large molecules, such as drugs
bound to albumin, remain behind in the blood. Active tubular secretion requires active transport systems to pump molecules from one side of the membrane to another. Passive tubular reabsorption allows substances in high concentrations in the tubule to be reabsorbed into the blood, and lipid-soluble drugs readily cross this membrane by passive reabsorption. pH-dependent ionization affects drugs that ionize in either acid or alkaline environments. A patient is given a new medication and reports nausea within an hour after taking the drug. The nurse consults the drug information manual and learns that nausea is not an expected adverse effect of this drug. When the next dose is due, what will the nurse do? CORRECT ANSWERS✅ Administer the drug and tell the patient to report further nausea. Not all adverse drug reactions (ADRs) can be detected during clinical trials, and nurses should be alert to any effects that may result from drug administration. Because nausea is not a serious effect and because it is not yet known whether the drug is the cause of this patient's nausea, the nurse should administer the medication and observe the patient for recurrence of the symptom. It is not necessary to hold the drug, because nausea is not a serious side effect. The MEDWATCH program should be notified when there is a greater suspicion that the drug may have caused the nausea if the nausea occurs with subsequent doses. Until there is greater suspicion that the drug actually caused this patient's nausea, giving an antiemetic is not indicated. A patient is being discharged after surgery. During the admission history, the nurse learned that the patient normally consumes two or three glasses of wine each day. The prescriber has ordered hydrocodone with acetaminophen [Lortab] for pain. What will the nurse do? CORRECT ANSWERS✅ Tell the patient not to drink wine while taking Lortab. Combining a hepatotoxic drug with certain other drugs may increase the risk of hepatotoxicity. When even therapeutic doses of acetaminophen are taken with alcohol, the acetaminophen can cause liver damage. Patients should be cautioned not to drink alcohol; even two drinks with acetaminophen can produce this effect.
the patient has taken this antibiotic before. If a patient is allergic to a drug, lowering the dose will not decrease the risk of allergic reaction. Antihistamines sometimes are given when patients must take a drug to which they are allergic. A nurse is preparing to administer a drug. Upon reading the medication guide, the nurse notes that the drug has been linked to symptoms of Parkinson's disease in some patients. What will the nurse do? CORRECT ANSWERS✅ Observe the patient closely for such symptoms and prepare to treat them if needed. A drug that causes disease-like symptoms is known to be iatrogenic. Nurses should be prepared for this possibility and be prepared to withdraw the drug if necessary and treat the symptoms. Such effects are not teratogenic. Patients with a genetic predisposition to respond differently to drugs are known to have idiosyncratic effects. Iatrogenic effects, even when known, are not typically expected side effects. A nurse provides teaching to a patient who will begin taking a drug with a known risk of hepatotoxicity. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? Correct! CORRECT ANSWERS✅ "Routine testing and early detection of problems will prevent liver failure. Drug-induced liver injury can progress from undetectable to advanced between routine tests; therefore, routine testing does not always prevent liver failure. Patients taking known hepatotoxic drugs should avoid other drugs, such as acetaminophen, that can cause liver damage. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) are liver enzymes that are routinely monitored when a patient is taking hepatotoxic drugs. Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain are signs of liver injury and should be reported. A patient is taking sertraline [Zoloft] for depression, and the provider orders azithromycin [Zithromax] to treat an infection. What will the nurse do? CORRECT ANSWERS✅ Contact the provider to discuss an alternative to azithromycin.
Both sertraline and azithromycin prolong the QT interval, and when taken together, they increase the risk of fatal dysrhythmias. Because the antibiotic is used for a short time, it is correct to consider using a different antibiotic. Reducing the dose of sertraline does not alter the combined effects of two drugs that lengthen the QT interval. Sertraline should not be stopped abruptly, so withholding it during antibiotic therapy is not indicated. A patient is taking a drug that has known toxic side effects. What will the nurse do? CORRECT ANSWERS✅ Monitor the function of all organs potentially affected by the drug. When a drug is administered that has known toxic side effects, the nurse is responsible for monitoring all organ systems potentially affected by the drug. Not all toxic side effects warrant discontinuation of the drug, and a nurse cannot discontinue a drug without an order from the provider. Complete blood counts are indicated only for drugs that affect the blood. Some drugs need to be discontinued, so teaching a patient to treat symptoms is not correct in all cases. A nursing student is preparing to give a medication that has a boxed warning. The student asks the nurse what this means. What will the nurse explain about boxed warnings? CORRECT ANSWERS✅ They alert prescribers to measures to mitigate potential harm from side effects Boxed warnings (also known as black box warnings) are used to alert providers to potential side effects and to ways to prevent or reduce harm from these side effects. A boxed warning is placed on any drug that, although useful, has serious side effects; this is a way to keep drugs on the market while protecting patients. Many of these drugs are used in situations that are not life threatening. The boxed warning provides a concise summary and not a detailed explanation of drug side effects. The boxed warning does not include antidotes to toxicity. A postoperative patient who is worried about pain control will be discharged several days after surgery. The nurse providing discharge teaching tells the patient
The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) recommends genetic testing of patients receiving certain medications. Genetic testing helps prescribers CORRECT ANSWERS✅ determine whether a patient is a rapid or slow metabolizer of the drug Pharmacogenomics is the study of the ways genetic variations affect individual responses to drugs through alterations in genes that code for drug-metabolizing enzymes and drug receptors. For some drugs, the FDA requires genetic testing, and for others, this testing is recommended but not required. Genetic testing does not determine a drug's therapeutic index; this is a measure of a drug's safety based on statistics of the drug's use in the general population (see Chapter 5). Any distinct physiologic differences in drug response among various racial populations are related to genetic differences and do not affect psychosocial differences in drug responses. Genetic testing is recommended to identify how a patient will respond to a drug and not to design a drug specific to an individual. A patient asks a nurse why a friend who is taking the same drug responds differently to that drug. The nurse knows that the most common variation in drug response is due to differences in each patient's: CORRECT ANSWERS✅ metabolism of drugs. The most common source of genetic variation in drug response is related to alterations in drug metabolism and is determined by genetic codes for various drug-metabolizing isoenzymes. There are known genetic differences in codes for drug target sites, but these are not as numerous as those for metabolic isoenzymes. Hypersensitivity potential is also genetically determined, but variations produce differences in adverse reactions to drugs and not in drug effectiveness. Psychosocial responses vary for many less measurable reasons, such as individual personalities and variations in cultures. A nurse is preparing to care for a patient who is receiving digoxin. When screening for potential adverse effects from this drug, the nurse will review which of this patient's laboratory results? CORRECT ANSWERS✅ Serum electrolytes
Patients with low serum potassium are at risk for fatal cardiac dysrhythmias when taking digoxin, and it is essential to know this level before this medication is administered. Knowing a patient's albumin level would be important when giving drugs that are protein bound. The BUN and creatinine levels are indicators of renal function. Hepatic enzymes are important to know when drugs are metabolized by the liver. A patient has been taking narcotic analgesics for chronic pain for several months. The nurse caring for this patient notes that the prescribed dose is higher than the recommended dose. The patient has normal vital signs, is awake and alert, and reports mild pain. What does the nurse recognize about this patient? CORRECT ANSWERS✅ This patient has developed pharmacodynamic tolerance, which has increased the minimal effective concentration (MEC) needed for analgesic effect. Pharmacodynamic tolerance results when a patient takes a drug over a period of time. Adaptive processes occur in response to chronic receptor occupation. The result is that the body requires increased drug, or an increased MEC, to achieve the same effect. This patient is getting adequate pain relief, so there is no negative placebo effect. Tachyphylaxis is a form of tolerance that can be defined as a reduction in drug responsiveness brought on by repeated dosing over a short time; this occurs over several months. Barbiturates induce synthesis of hepatic enzymes that cause increased metabolism of the drug, but it does not increase the MEC. A nurse is caring for a woman with breast cancer who is receiving tamoxifen. A review of this patient's chart reveals a deficiency of the CYP2D6 gene. The nurse will contact the provider to suggest CORRECT ANSWERS✅ a different medication. Women with a deficiency of the CYP2D6 gene lack the ability to convert tamoxifen to its active form, endoxifen, and will not benefit from this drug. Another drug should be used to treat this patient's breast cancer. Increasing the dose, reducing