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PTRS 855: Exam 1 Questions With Complete Solutions In the 1950s, where did pharmacologists often search for new medicinal plants? Jungles of South America What significant change occurred in drug discovery during the 1970s-80s? Shift to drug design based on disease understanding What enzyme is targeted to reduce cholesterol production? HMG-CoA reductase What approach did Merck take to develop a cholesterol- lowering drug? Computer simulations to identify compounds How many species of animals must be tested during drug development? Three or more What is the estimated success rate of compounds reaching human testing? 5 in 5, What does "phenotypic drug discovery" focus on?
End effects of drugs What role does the FDA play in drug approval? It ensures drugs are safe and effective. What is the average time it takes for a drug to go from discovery to market? 15 years In which phase do researchers first assess the safety of a drug on healthy volunteers? Phase 1 What was thalidomide originally used for? Morning Sickness What does "personalized medicine" aim to achieve? Tailoring drug treatment based on genetic differences What is one potential benefit of tissue regeneration in healthcare? Possible cures for previously incurable diseases What example is given for a drug that has dosing challenges based on genetic differences? Warfarin (Coumadin) What phase is referred to as post-marketing surveillance?
The generic name of a drug All of the above Postmarketing surveillance is often conducted before the drug approval by the FDA. False Phase III trials only assesses small numbers of patients with the disease of interest to find major side effects. False If there is no existing patent for a drug, or if the patent has expired, the same drug may be marketed by separate drug companies under different trade names In recent years, the FDA concluded that cell culture experiments became unnecessary for drug testing since computer simulation replaces this step. False The generic form of a drug is considered to be as safe and effective as the original, brand-name product if the generic form _________ as the brand-name drug All of the above
The testing drug is given to a small number of healthy volunteers in phase IV. False Which of the following phases is assessing the most common acute side effects of a new drug? Phase 1 What is absorption in pharmacokinetics? The entry of a drug into the bloodstream without chemical alteration Which route of administration typically provides the fastest absorption? Intravenous (IV) What factor influences the rate of drug absorption? All of the above Active transport requires: Energy (usually ATP) Which of the following is a common dosage form for enteral administration? Tablets
What happens to a drug when it undergoes biotransformation? It can be converted into an inactive or more polar form. Tolerance to a drug can occur due to: Enhanced biotransformation The primary site for drug excretion is the: Kidney Clearance of a drug is defined as: The volume of blood cleared of drug per unit time Half-life is defined as: The time required for 50% of the drug to be eliminated Which factor can decrease the clearance of drugs from the body? Age-related decline in kidney function Creatinine clearance tests are often used to assess: Kidney function Which statement about drug absorption is true? The rate of absorption can vary significantly among different drugs. What happens to drug levels in the bloodstream as a person ages? Half-life may increase for renally excreted drugs.
In cases of liver disease, the metabolism of which drug might require careful monitoring? Acetaminophen What can happen if a drug is administered faster than it is eliminated? Drug accumulation and potential toxicity Which factor does NOT affect drug distribution? Drug color Which of the following drugs is known for requiring close monitoring due to its high protein binding? Dilantin (Phenytoin) What is the primary method of excretion for inhaled drugs? Exhalation Renal impairment may particularly affect the clearance of which class of drugs? Hydrophilic drugs Which condition can lead to an increased risk of drug toxicity due to altered metabolism? Liver cirrhosis What is the effect of decreased blood flow to an organ on drug clearance?
The study of how the body deals with a drug in terms of the way the drug is absorbed, distributed, and eliminated is known as pharmacokinetics All of the following are parenteral routes of drug administration EXCEPT the ____ route. Oral Drug metabolism by the liver and other organs typically creates a more ____ compound, thus enabling the compound to be ____ when it reaches the nephrons in the kidney. polar; excreted What is pharmacodynamics primarily concerned with? Mechanisms of drug action at the target site Which of the following describes efficacy? The ability of a drug to initiate a response after binding to its target What does a dose-response curve typically illustrate? The relationship between drug dose and the percentage of response What is potency? The dose required to produce a given response What does the term ED50 refer to?
The dose at which 50% of the population experiences a positive response What is the therapeutic index (TI)? The ratio of LD50 to ED What effect do calcium channel blockers have on vascular smooth muscle? Decrease contraction and promote relaxation What defines a drug with high affinity for its receptor? It binds readily to the receptor even at low concentrations Which of the following is true regarding the therapeutic index? A higher TI indicates a safer drug What happens when a drug reaches the plateau in a dose- response curve? Further increases in dose lead to no additional effect What does LD50 represent? The lethal dose for 50% of test subjects Why is it important to understand the interaction of drugs with their receptors? To categorize drugs based on receptor information What is a common effect of calcium entry in muscle cells?
The affinity of an agonist for one receptor subtype over another Which type of receptor requires a ligand to enter the cell to exert its effect? Intracellular receptors What happens when an agonist binds to its receptor? It activates the receptor and initiates a signaling cascade What is the role of G-proteins in the signaling process? They amplify signals and transduce messages from activated receptors Which G-protein is associated with the m2 muscarinic receptor subtype? Gi What is the effect of cholera toxin on G-proteins? It activates the Gs protein continuously In the context of the provided information, what occurs when calcium is released from the endoplasmic reticulum? It can cause muscle contraction or neurotransmitter release What characterizes G-protein coupled receptors? They contain seven transmembrane domains What is nonselective binding?
When a drug binds to unintended receptors at high concentrations Which neurotransmitter is mentioned as binding to different muscarinic receptor subtypes with varying effects? Acetylcholine What type of receptor is primarily involved in the transmittal of growth factor signals into cells? Receptor tyrosine kinases Which feature distinguishes G-protein coupled receptors from receptor tyrosine kinases? Receptor tyrosine kinases phosphorylate tyrosine residues What happens to a receptor during desensitization? The receptor's binding affinity decreases. Which of the following hormones is likely to bind to an intracellular receptor? Testosterone What is the primary action of ion channel receptors? They allow the passage of ions across the cell membrane. What role does the Ras protein play in the signaling cascade initiated by receptor tyrosine kinases? It activates mitogen-activated protein (MAP) kinase.
on the surface of the cell When evaluating drug safety, the dosage that causes 50% of subjects to exhibit a specific adverse effect is known as the median toxic dose A ligand that is ________ binds to the receptor and activates it, while a ligand that is ________ will inhibit the receptor from becoming activated. agonist; antagonist ____________ is the study of the mechanism of action of drugs, the therapeutic and toxic effects, and the relationship between the chemical structure and its activity. pharmacodynamics A drug that binds readily to available receptors even if the concentration of drug is relatively low is said to have _______ for that receptor. high affinity In general, the greater the value of the _______, the safer the drug is considered to be. therapeutic index Ability of a drug to initiate a cellular response after the drug binds to its target receptor is referred to as efficacy
The acetylcholine receptor located on the postsynaptic membrane of the skeletal neuromuscular junction is an example of a membrane receptor that functions as an ion channel or pore What is the primary mechanism of action for penicillins? Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis Which class of antibiotics is used to treat Gram-positive bacteria and includes drugs like cloxacillin and piperacillin? Penicillins What serious adverse effect can occur in patients allergic to penicillin? Anaphylaxis Vancomycin is primarily used to treat which type of bacteria? Gram-positive bacteria Which of the following drugs is associated with "red man syndrome"? Vancomycin Which antibiotic is contraindicated for pregnant women and children due to potential bone and teeth deformities? Tetracyclines What is the mechanism of action for sulfonamides?
Resistance development Chloramphenicol is most commonly prescribed for which of the following conditions? Bacterial meningitis Which drug is indicated for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infections? Vancomycin What does the term "cross-resistance" refer to? Resistance to multiple drug classes What is the primary target of protease inhibitors in HIV treatment? Viral proteins Which of the following is a common side effect of tetracycline? Nausea Flucytosine is often used in combination with which other antifungal agent? Amphotericin B What is the action of interferons when used therapeutically? Prevent viral replication Which of the following best describes the action of aminoglycosides?
Inhibit protein synthesis Which drug class is primarily used to treat tuberculosis? Isoniazid What is a potential side effect of using AZT (Zidovudine)? Myelosuppression Which of the following drugs is an example of an azole antifungal? Ketoconazole Which class of drugs is considered the first line of treatment for HIV? Reverse transcriptase inhibitors What is a notable feature of the mechanism of action of azoles? They block cytochrome P450 enzymes Which drug is not used for treating infections but can stimulate red blood cell production? Erythropoietin Which antibiotic is quickly becoming ineffective because bacteria are mutating to forms that are resistant? Vancomycin
