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Pharmacology Exam 1 - Multiple Choice Questions with
Solutions
1.1. The study of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion is known as A. pharmacotherapeutics B. pharmacodynamics C. pharmacokinetics D. pharmacy E. posology: C 2.2. The medical situation when a particular drug should not be administered is referred to as A. side effect B. adverse effect C. drug allergy D. contraindication E. antagonism: D 3.3. An unusual or unexpected drug reaction by an individual is known as A. toxic effect B. antagonism C. idiosyncrasy D. side effect E. drug allergy: C 4.4. The proprietary drug name supplied by a pharmaceutical company is also referred to as the A. generic name B. over-the-counter name C. trade name D. chemical name E. none of these: C 5.5. The time from drug administration to the first observable drug effect is known as the A. duration of action B. onset of action C. ceiling effect D. maximal response E. ceiling effect: B 6.6. A drug that has the potential for abuse and is regulated by the Drug Enforcement Agency is classified as a A. poison
2 / 20 B. OTC drug C. prescription drug D. controlled substance E. nonproprietary drug: D 7.7. Select the term below that relates to the amount of drug administered to produce a therapeutic effect. A. posology B. toxicology C. pharmacodynamics D. pharmacotherapeutics E. pharmacy: A 8.8. A medication that does not require a physician's service to obtain is referred to as A. trade B. nonproprietary C. nonprescription D. brand E. generic: C 9.9. Which of the following could be categorized as an adverse reaction? A. idiosyncrasy B. drug allergy C. teratogenicity D. carcinogenicity E. all of these: E 10.10. The time a drug continues to produce its effect is its A. ED B. maximal response C. ceiling effect D. onset of action E. duration of action: E 11.. The drug administration route demonstrating the slowest onset of action is A. inhalation B. transdermal C. intramuscular D. sublingual E. intravenous: B 12.In order for drugs to cross the blood-brain barrier, they must be A. ionized B. positively charged
4 / 20 19.19. Which FDA pregnancy category would appear to be the safest for a developing fetus? A. Category A B. Category B C. Category C D. Category D E. Category X: A 20.20. A 45-year-old female shop assistant is treated for heartburn with omeprazole. She notes that the effect of a dose of omeprazole lasts much longer than that of a dose of the antacid drug calcium carbonate she had previously taken. The active metabolite of omeprazole binds covalently and irreversibly to a molecular structure involved in releasing protons into the gas- tric juice. Drugs that modify their target structures through this mechanism are called suicide substrates. orphan drugs. protein drugs. competitive antagonists. enantiomers.: A 21.21. A 36-year-old male has been diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia. His oncologist discusses treatment options with him. The patient is glad to hear that novel anticancer drugs used to treat chronic myeloid leukemia have a much better risk-benefit ratio than older ones, due to their improved selectivity. A major determinant for the selectivity of a given drug is A) its target receptor ligand affinity. B) its target receptor cell-type distribution. C) its ionic interactions. D) its hydrogen bonding. E) its intrinsic activity.: B 22.22. A 56-year-old man with chest pain is diagnosed with stable angina and treated with several drugs including nitroglycerin. Every day he has to discontinue nitroglycerin for some hours to re-establish reactivity of his body to the drug. The clinical observation of a rapidly decreasing response to nitroglycerin after administration of just a few doses is called idiosyncrasy. tachyphylaxis. heterologous desensitization.
5 / 20 refractoriness. receptor downregulation.: B
7 / 20 D. beta-2 receptors E. all of these: E 28.28. At therapeutic doses, albuterol stimulates A. alpha-1 receptors B. alpha-2 receptors C. beta-1 receptors D. beta-2 receptors E. all of these: D 29.29. Metoprolol is classified as a(n) A. alpha-blocker B. nonselective beta-blocker C. selective beta-1 blocker D. adrenergic neuronal blocker E. selective beta-2 blocker: C 30.30. The mechanism of action of methyldopa is A. increased release of NE from adrenergic nerve ending B. alpha-1 receptor blocker C. beta-1 receptor blocker D. formation of a false transmitter in adrenergic nerve ending E. none of these: D 31.31. The drug of choice to treat acute allergic reactions is A. norepinephrine B. phenylephrine C. pseudoephedrine D. epinephrine E. propranolol: D 32.32. Which of the following are actions of nonselective beta- adrenergic blocking drugs? A. decreasing heart rate B. decreasing force of myocardial contraction C. vasoconstriction of skeletal muscle blood vessels D. lowering of blood pressure E. all of these: E 33.33. The actions of epinephrine (EPI) include which of the following? A. bronchodilation B. vasoconstriction C. relaxation of uterus D. increased heart rate E. all of these: E
8 / 20 34.34. Parasympathetic receptors located on the membranes of the internal organs are classified as A. alpha- 1 B. nicotinic-neural (Nn) C. nicotinic-muscle (Nm) D. muscarinic E. ganglionic: D 35.35. Select the pharmacologic effect produced by cholinergic drugs. A. increased heart rate B. increased gastrointestinal motility C. decreased urination D. pupillary dilation E. bronchodilation: B 36.36. Physostigmine (Eserine ) is classified as a(n) A. direct-acting cholinergic drug B. reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor C. irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor D. anticholinergic drug E. ganglionic blocker: B 37.37. Symptoms of cholinergic drug overdosage include A. slow pulse rate B. increased urination C. diarrhea D. sweating E. all of these: E 38.38. Anticholinergic effects include all of the following except A. bronchodilation B. increased heart rate C. increased gastrointestinal activity D. decreased respiratory secretions E. dry mouth: C 39.39. The antidote for atropine poisoning is A. scopolamine B. bethanechol C. neostigmine D. physostigmine E. dicyclomine: D 40.40. Pick the correct pharmacological effect(s) of direct-acting cholinergic drugs.
10 / 20 the neuromuscular junction D. relaxation of the muscles in the lower extremities pulls blood away from the lungs E. all skeletal muscle relaxants interfere with calcium ion storage in the muscle: A 46.46. Select the drug or condition(s) that decrease the effects of neuromus- cular blockers. A. neomycin B. corticosteroids C. general anesthetics like isoflurane D. alcohol E. myasthenia gravis and spinal cord lesions: B 47.47. Which of the following is a way in which skeletal muscles are relaxed? A. blockage of conduction in the spinal cord B. inhibiting nerve transmission C. blockage of the Nm receptors D. decreasing ACH in the neuromuscular junction E. all of these: E 48.48. Select reasons for using muscle relaxants during surgical or diagnostic procedures. A. reduce muscle tear B. decrease body temperature C. potentiate vasodilators D. increase muscle tone E. depress respiration: A 49.49. Which of the following is NOT a potential adverse effect of peripherally acting skeletal muscle relaxants? A. difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) B. skeletal muscle weakness C. decreased respiration D. bronchospasm E. muscle fasciculations: C 50.50. In the presynaptic terminal of neuronal cells, the immediate trigger to release a neurotransmitter from synaptic vesicles into the synaptic cleft is A) a drop in cytosolic Ca2+. B) a drop in cytosolic K+. C) a rise in cytosolic Ca2+. D) a drop in cytosolic Mg2+.
11 / 20 E) a rise in cytosolic K+. F) a rise in cytosolic Mg2+.: C 51.51. A 17-year-old girl with suspected intrinsic asthma but nearly normal re- sults on spirometry and flow volume testing takes a methacholine provocative test. The mechanism of action of methacholine most closely resembles that of hemicholinium. acetylcholine. edrophonium. succinylcholine. neostigmine.: B 52.52. The muscarinic receptor that couples to G proteins responsible for adenylyl cyclase inhibition and plays a key role in cholinergic input to the heart is classified as muscarinic-M1 receptor. muscarinic-M2 receptor. muscarinic-M3 receptor. muscarinic-M4 receptor. muscarinic-M5 receptor.: B 53.53. A 25-year old female presents with delirium, hyperthermia, and symp- toms of central anticholinergic intoxication. She has attended a ìwitches' conventî and ingested some herbal extracts including fruits of the species ìAtropa belladonna.î As one component of her treatment, she receives a dose of physostigmine. Refer to the case above. Physostigmine is preferred over neostigmine be- cause A) it is a nonpolar compound that penetrates the CNS more easily than neostigmine. B) it has a shorter half-life than neostigmine, making it more useful for emer- gency treatment. C) it has a longer half-life than neostigmine, better matching the half-life of atropine. D) it is eliminated via the kidneys, and dosage is not critical with compromised liver function. E) it is eliminated via the liver, and dosage is not critical with compromised renal function.: A 54.54. Which of the following is a correct statement? A. opioid analgesics produce little or no respiration depression with long- term use of analgesic doses B. opioid antagonists include endorphins
13 / 20 60.60. Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic that A. can be used for relief of cancer pain B. has many formulations (lozenge, film) because it is used routinely in dental surgery C. induces neuropathic pain D. primarily works on peripheral nerve endings rather than higher centers E. does not have a black box warning because of its low addiction potential: A 61.61. Sharp pain is transmitted through which type of nerve fibers? A. unmyelinated B. myelinated A-delta C. CTZ D. C fibers E. mu fibers in the intestine: B 62.62. Opioid drugs are derived from which of the following? A. poppy B. opium C. chemical synthesis D. alkaloids E. all of these: E 63.63. Select the adverse effects of opioid analgesics. A. constipation B. polyuria C. convulsions D. mydriasis E. excessive tearing: A 64.64. During tolerance to opioid analgesics, the following is happening. A. fewer receptors are available to produce a response B. increased pain by the patient requires greater doses of medication C. the body reacts to removal of the opioid analgesic D. histamine release causes hypotension E. signals from nocieocptors are reduced: A 65.65. What is the best reason for using a balanced anesthesia strategy? (LO 18.1) A. producing complementary effects using a few drugs avoids unnecessary intense (deep) CNS depression with one anesthetic to achieve the same effect B. the concentration of volatile anesthetic in the alveoli is balanced against the amount of anesthetic in the blood C. less monitoring of anesthesia is required
14 / 20 D. fewer patients experience emergence delirium E. there is less chance of aspirating saliva: A 66.66. Why is propofol a drug of choice for induction and maintenance of anesthesia? A. it is a potent analgesic at all doses B. it slowly brings the patient to the stage of surgical anesthesia C. it is a complete anesthetic with a quick onset of action and recovery period uncomplicated by nausea and vomiting D. it is administered by special vaporizer to avoid mask delivery E. its preparation does not require special handling technique: C 67.67. Which of the following is NOT correct? A. ketamine causes chloride ions to flow out of the nerve cell by binding to GABA B. propofol binds to the GABA A receptor and enhances hyperpolarization of the neuron C. barbiturates and propofol act on the receptor and directly on the chloride channel D. potent anesthetics enhance GABA A receptor function E. general anesthetics interact with neurotransmitter-gated ion channels: A 68.68. Which of the following major routes remove etomidate and midazolam from the body? A. hepatic metabolism and renal excretion B. excretion through the lungs and sweating C. accumulation in fat tissue and redistribution D. increased salivation and bile production E. gastrointestinal reabsorption: A 69.69. Select the types of anesthesia in which there is no loss of conscious- ness. A. local anesthesia B. Monitored Anesthesia Care C. general anesthesia D. balanced anesthesia E. maintenance anesthesia: A 70.70. Choose the correct class of general anesthetics. A. intravenous B. dissociative anesthesia C. oral D. topical E. epidural: A
16 / 20 C. increases total sleep time D. is used as an antianxiety agent E. is also used as an anticonvulsant: C. increases total sleep time 77.6. Zolpidem A. binds to the benzodiazepine-1 (BZD1) receptor B. is useful as a muscle relaxant C. has a slow onset of action D. is useful as an anticonvulsant E. is chemically classified as a benzodiazepine: real answer is Bound to the alpha subunit receptor 78.7. Alcohol has pharmacological effects on which body systems? A. central nervous system B. gastrointestinal system C. renal system D. vascular system E. all of these: E. all of these 79.1.The main pharmacologic effect of the SSRIs is A. increase levels of norepinephrine B. increase levels of serotonin C. decrease levels of norepinephrine D. decrease levels of serotonin E. decrease levels of dopamine: B. increase levels of serotonin 80.The pharmacologic effects of TCAs include A. alpha-adrenergic blockade B. antihistaminic C. anticholinergic D. sedation E. all of the above: E. all of the above 81.3. The serotonin syndrome is mainly associated with overdosage of A. tricyclic antidepressants B. monoamine oxidase inhibitors C. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors D. psychomotor stimulants E. lithium: E. lithium
17 / 20 82.4.The main pharmacologic effects of TCAs on neurotransmitter activity is A. increase norepinephrine B. increase acetylcholine C. increase serotonin D. increase norepinephrine and serotonin only E. increase norepinephrine, acetylcholine, and serotonin: D. increase norepi- nephrine and serotonin only 83.5. Venlafaxine (Effexor) is classified as A. MAOI B. TCA C. SSRI D. SNRI E. psychomotor stimulant: D. SNRI 84.6. Adverse effects of TCAs include A. liver toxicity B. cardiac arrhythmias C. convulsions D. postural hypotension E. all of these: E. all of these 85.7. Which of these represents the drug that is not correctly matched with its drug classification? A. paroxetine—SSRI B. amitriptyline—TCA C. methylphenidate—MAOI this is targets dop transporter D. duloxetine—SNRI E. phenelzine—MAOI: C. methylphenidate—MAOI this is targets dop transporter 86.8. Which drug requires a dietary restriction for foods containing tyramine? A. nortriptyline (TCA) B. tranylcypromine (MAOI) C. venlafaxine (SNRI) D. fluoxetine (SSRI) E. methamphetamine: B. tranylcypromine (MAOI) 87.9. The site of action of diazepam (Valium) to relieve anxiety is the A. spinal cord B. limbic system C. reticular formation D. basal ganglia E. cerebellum: B. limbic system
19 / 20 B. bradykinesia C. tremor D. dystonia E. postural instability: B. bradykinesia 95.5. Sinemet is the trade name of a drug combination that contains levodopa and A. carbidopa and entacapone B. entacapone C. carbidopa D. selegiline E. amantadine: C. carbidopa 96.6. The COMT inhibitor that has been associated with causing liver toxicity is A. ropinirole B. entacapone C. pramipexole D. tolcapone E. benztropine: D. tolcapone 97.7. Select the symptoms of Parkinson's disease A. muscular rigidity B. increased sweating C. salivary drooling D. movement disturbances E. all of these: A and D 98.8. Which of the following drugs would be used to decrease the actions of ACH? A. amantadine B. levodopa C. bromocriptine D. procyclidine E. carbidopa: D. procyclidine 99.9. Select the mechanisms by which levodopa works. A. crosses blood-brain barrier by an amino acid transporter B. converted to dopamine in the substantia nigra neurons C. increases level of dopamine in the brain D. peripheral metabolism to DA inhibited by carbidopa E. all of these: E. all of these
- Apomorphine is classified as A. MAO-B inhibitor
20 / 20 B. dopamine receptor agonist C. COMT inhibitor D. anticholinergic drug E. DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor: B. dopamine receptor agonist
