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Pharmacology Exam 1 Multiple Choice 127 Questions with
Verified Answers
- The study of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion is known as A. pharmacotherapeutics B. pharmacodynamics C. pharmacokinetics D. pharmacy E. posology - CORRECT ANSWER C
- The medical situation when a particular drug should not be administered is referred to as A. side effect B. adverse effect C. drug allergy D. contraindication E. antagonism - CORRECT ANSWER D
- An unusual or unexpected drug reaction by an individual is known as A. toxic effect B. antagonism C. idiosyncrasy D. side effect E. drug allergy - CORRECT ANSWER C
- The proprietary drug name supplied by a pharmaceutical company is also referred to as the A. generic name B. over-the-counter name C. trade name D. chemical name E. none of these - CORRECT ANSWER C
- The time from drug administration to the first observable drug effect is known as the A. duration of action B. onset of action C. ceiling effect D. maximal response E. ceiling effect - CORRECT ANSWER B
- A drug that has the potential for abuse and is regulated by the Drug Enforcement Agency is classified as a A. poison B. OTC drug C. prescription drug D. controlled substance E. nonproprietary drug - CORRECT ANSWER D
- Select the term below that relates to the amount of drug administered to produce a therapeutic effect. A. posology B. toxicology C. pharmacodynamics D. pharmacotherapeutics E. pharmacy - CORRECT ANSWER A
- A medication that does not require a physician's service to obtain is referred to as A. trade B. nonproprietary C. nonprescription D. brand E. generic - CORRECT ANSWER C
- Which of the following could be categorized as an adverse reaction? A. idiosyncrasy B. drug allergy C. teratogenicity D. carcinogenicity
C. D
D. X
E. NR - CORRECT ANSWER D= x
- When a drug increases the rate of drug metabolism of other drugs, the process is termed A. first-pass metabolism B. enzyme induction C. enzyme inhibition D. enterohepatic cycling E. microsomal inhibition - CORRECT ANSWER B
- The rate of drug absorption would be increased by which of the following? A. drug ionization B. water solubility C. positively charged drug D. negatively charged drug E. lipid solubility - CORRECT ANSWER E
- Which factor of individual variation is dependent upon the patient's attitude toward treatment? A. weight B. age C. genetic variation D. placebo effect E. gender - CORRECT ANSWER D
- Which FDA pregnancy category would appear to be the safest for a developing fetus? A. Category A B. Category B C. Category C D. Category D E. Category X - CORRECT ANSWER A
- A 45-year-old female shop assistant is treated for heartburn with omeprazole. She notes that the effect of a dose of omeprazole lasts much longer than that of a
dose of the antacid drug calcium carbonate she had previously taken. The active metabolite of omeprazole binds covalently and irreversibly to a molecular structure involved in releasing protons into the gastric juice. Drugs that modify their target structures through this mechanism are called suicide substrates. orphan drugs. protein drugs. competitive antagonists. enantiomers. - CORRECT ANSWER A
- A 36-year-old male has been diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia. His oncologist discusses treatment options with him. The patient is glad to hear that novel anticancer drugs used to treat chronic myeloid leukemia have a much better risk-benefit ratio than older ones, due to their improved selectivity. A major determinant for the selectivity of a given drug is A) its target receptor ligand affinity. B) its target receptor cell-type distribution. C) its ionic interactions. D) its hydrogen bonding. E) its intrinsic activity. - CORRECT ANSWER B
- A 56-year-old man with chest pain is diagnosed with stable angina and treated with several drugs including nitroglycerin. Every day he has to discontinue nitroglycerin for some hours to re-establish reactivity of his body to the drug. The clinical observation of a rapidly decreasing response to nitroglycerin after administration of just a few doses is called idiosyncrasy. tachyphylaxis. heterologous desensitization. refractoriness. receptor downregulation. - CORRECT ANSWER B
- Prolonged receptor stimulation during chronic drug therapy may induce cells to endocytose and sequester drug receptors in endocytic vesicles. This molecular mechanism is called A) tachyphylaxis. B) inactivation.
E. all of these - CORRECT ANSWER E
- At therapeutic doses, albuterol stimulates A. alpha-1 receptors B. alpha-2 receptors C. beta-1 receptors D. beta-2 receptors E. all of these - CORRECT ANSWER D
- Metoprolol is classified as a(n) A. alpha-blocker B. nonselective beta-blocker C. selective beta-1 blocker D. adrenergic neuronal blocker E. selective beta-2 blocker - CORRECT ANSWER C
- The mechanism of action of methyldopa is A. increased release of NE from adrenergic nerve ending B. alpha-1 receptor blocker C. beta-1 receptor blocker D. formation of a false transmitter in adrenergic nerve ending E. none of these - CORRECT ANSWER D
- The drug of choice to treat acute allergic reactions is A. norepinephrine B. phenylephrine C. pseudoephedrine D. epinephrine E. propranolol - CORRECT ANSWER D
- Which of the following are actions of nonselective beta-adrenergic blocking drugs? A. decreasing heart rate B. decreasing force of myocardial contraction C. vasoconstriction of skeletal muscle blood vessels D. lowering of blood pressure E. all of these - CORRECT ANSWER E
- The actions of epinephrine (EPI) include which of the following? A. bronchodilation B. vasoconstriction C. relaxation of uterus D. increased heart rate E. all of these - CORRECT ANSWER E
- Parasympathetic receptors located on the membranes of the internal organs are classified as A. alpha- B. nicotinic-neural (Nn) C. nicotinic-muscle (Nm) D. muscarinic E. ganglionic - CORRECT ANSWER D
- Select the pharmacologic effect produced by cholinergic drugs. A. increased heart rate B. increased gastrointestinal motility C. decreased urination D. pupillary dilation E. bronchodilation - CORRECT ANSWER B
- Physostigmine (Eserine ) is classified as a(n) A. direct-acting cholinergic drug B. reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor C. irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor D. anticholinergic drug E. ganglionic blocker - CORRECT ANSWER B
- Symptoms of cholinergic drug overdosage include A. slow pulse rate B. increased urination C. diarrhea D. sweating E. all of these - CORRECT ANSWER E
E. botulinumtoxinA rapidly attaches to these receptors - CORRECT ANSWER D
- Succinylcholine is associated with which of the following actions? A. stimulation of the actin and myosin muscle fibrils directly B. liver damage because the drug is metabolized only by the liver C. peripheral neuromuscular receptor blockade after stimulating the Nm receptors D. longer duration of action than vecuronium E. stimulation of presynaptic ACH release - CORRECT ANSWER C
- Centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants A. include dantrolene and cisatracurium B. inhibit or reduce activity within the spinal cord (intraneuronal), interrupting the central stimulus to muscle contraction C. can only be given parenterally D. cause systemic release of histamine, leading to hypotension E. counteract the effect of botulinumtoxin B - CORRECT ANSWER B
- Skeletal muscle relaxants may alter control of respiration because A. the diaphragm is a skeletal muscle B. succinylcholine stimulates the respiratory centers in the brain C. like dantrolene, all muscle relaxants inhibit the action of norepinephrine at the neuromuscular junction D. relaxation of the muscles in the lower extremities pulls blood away from the lungs E. all skeletal muscle relaxants interfere with calcium ion storage in the muscle - CORRECT ANSWER A
- Select the drug or condition(s) that decrease the effects of neuromuscular blockers. A. neomycin B. corticosteroids C. general anesthetics like isoflurane D. alcohol E. myasthenia gravis and spinal cord lesions - CORRECT ANSWER B
- Which of the following is a way in which skeletal muscles are relaxed?
A. blockage of conduction in the spinal cord B. inhibiting nerve transmission C. blockage of the Nm receptors D. decreasing ACH in the neuromuscular junction E. all of these - CORRECT ANSWER E
- Select reasons for using muscle relaxants during surgical or diagnostic procedures. A. reduce muscle tear B. decrease body temperature C. potentiate vasodilators D. increase muscle tone E. depress respiration - CORRECT ANSWER A
- Which of the following is NOT a potential adverse effect of peripherally acting skeletal muscle relaxants? A. difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) B. skeletal muscle weakness C. decreased respiration D. bronchospasm E. muscle fasciculations - CORRECT ANSWER C
- In the presynaptic terminal of neuronal cells, the immediate trigger to release a neurotransmitter from synaptic vesicles into the synaptic cleft is A) a drop in cytosolic Ca2+. B) a drop in cytosolic K+. C) a rise in cytosolic Ca2+. D) a drop in cytosolic Mg2+. E) a rise in cytosolic K+. F) a rise in cytosolic Mg2+. - CORRECT ANSWER C
- A 17-year-old girl with suspected intrinsic asthma but nearly normal results on spirometry and flow volume testing takes a methacholine provocative test. The mechanism of action of methacholine most closely resembles that of hemicholinium. acetylcholine. edrophonium.
A. hyperventilation and deep breathing B. bronchospasms C. spasmogenic activity in the ureters and sphincter muscle D. relaxation of the skeletal muscles controlling posture (spasmolytic) E. suppression of coughing - CORRECT ANSWER D
- Opioid analgesics are used in which of the following settings? A. induction of Monitored Anesthesia Care and treatment of chronic severe pain B. routine treatment of migraine C. unmonitored treatment of chronic severe pain D. analgesia for patients with paralytic ileus E. chronic osteoarthritis - CORRECT ANSWER A
- Which of the following is a correct statement? A. endorphin is an abbreviation from the terms meaning inside the organ B. endogenous opioid receptors include mu, alpha-2 adrenergic, and delta receptors C. agonism means the drug occupies the receptor and causes a response D. opioid agonism means the drug occupies the receptor and stimulates the release of endorphins E. tolerance is a characteristic of chronic opioid antagonism - CORRECT ANSWER C
- Which of the following drugs has a recognized medical therapy and does not interact with opioid receptors? A. heroin B. codeine C. methadone D. acetaminophen - CORRECT ANSWER D
- All opioid analgesics are associated with which of the following? A. reversal of respiratory depression from barbiturates B. use only for the relief of acute pain C. cough suppression alone or in combination with other analgesics over-the- counter D. tolerance develops to the analgesic response E. drug of choice in treating biliary obstruction - CORRECT ANSWER D
- Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic that A. can be used for relief of cancer pain B. has many formulations (lozenge, film) because it is used routinely in dental surgery C. induces neuropathic pain D. primarily works on peripheral nerve endings rather than higher centers E. does not have a black box warning because of its low addiction potential - CORRECT ANSWER A
- Sharp pain is transmitted through which type of nerve fibers? A. unmyelinated B. myelinated A-delta C. CTZ D. C fibers E. mu fibers in the intestine - CORRECT ANSWER B
- Opioid drugs are derived from which of the following? A. poppy B. opium C. chemical synthesis D. alkaloids E. all of these - CORRECT ANSWER E
- Select the adverse effects of opioid analgesics. A. constipation B. polyuria C. convulsions D. mydriasis E. excessive tearing - CORRECT ANSWER A
- During tolerance to opioid analgesics, the following is happening. A. fewer receptors are available to produce a response B. increased pain by the patient requires greater doses of medication C. the body reacts to removal of the opioid analgesic D. histamine release causes hypotension E. signals from nocieocptors are reduced - CORRECT ANSWER A
- Select the types of anesthesia in which there is no loss of consciousness. A. local anesthesia B. Monitored Anesthesia Care C. general anesthesia D. balanced anesthesia E. maintenance anesthesia - CORRECT ANSWER A
- Choose the correct class of general anesthetics. A. intravenous B. dissociative anesthesia C. oral D. topical E. epidural - CORRECT ANSWER A
- Which drugs would be used as adjunct therapy to anesthesia? A. analgesics B. antiarrhythmics C. antianxiety, short-acting CNS depressants like midazolam D. anticholinergics E. all of these - CORRECT ANSWER E 1.Barbiturate and benzodiazepine hypnotics both A. increase NREM stage 2 sleep B. increase REM sleep C. increase NREM stage 4 sleep D. cause REM rebound E. all of these statements are true - CORRECT ANSWER A. increase NREM stage 2 sleep 2.Disadvantages to the use of barbiturate hypnotics include A. development of drug tolerance B. risk of drug dependency C. disruption of normal stages of sleep D. suppression of REM sleep E. all of these statements are true - CORRECT ANSWER E. all of these statements are true
- The correct statement concerning the use of hypnotic drugs is A. zolpidem binds to the GABAB receptor B. benzodiazepines increase chloride channel opening C. barbiturates block the GABA receptor D. ramelteon is a melatonin antagonist E. flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor agonist - CORRECT ANSWER B. benzodiazepines increase chloride channel opening
- Flurazepam A. is classified as long-acting B. forms active metabolites C. may cause next-day residual effects D. increases chloride ion influx E. all of these statements are true - CORRECT ANSWER E. all of these statements are true
- Eszopiclone A. is classified as a benzodiazepine B. has a half-life of 1-2 hours C. increases total sleep time D. is used as an antianxiety agent E. is also used as an anticonvulsant - CORRECT ANSWER C. increases total sleep time
- Zolpidem A. binds to the benzodiazepine-1 (BZD1) receptor B. is useful as a muscle relaxant C. has a slow onset of action D. is useful as an anticonvulsant E. is chemically classified as a benzodiazepine - CORRECT ANSWER real answer is Bound to the alpha subunit receptor
E. increase norepinephrine, acetylcholine, and serotonin - CORRECT ANSWER D. increase norepinephrine and serotonin only
- Venlafaxine (Effexor) is classified as A. MAOI B. TCA C. SSRI D. SNRI E. psychomotor stimulant - CORRECT ANSWER D. SNRI
- Adverse effects of TCAs include A. liver toxicity B. cardiac arrhythmias C. convulsions D. postural hypotension E. all of these - CORRECT ANSWER E. all of these
- Which of these represents the drug that is not correctly matched with its drug classification? A. paroxetine—SSRI B. amitriptyline—TCA C. methylphenidate—MAOI this is targets dop transporter D. duloxetine—SNRI E. phenelzine—MAOI - CORRECT ANSWER C. methylphenidate—MAOI this is targets dop transporter
- Which drug requires a dietary restriction for foods containing tyramine? A. nortriptyline (TCA) B. tranylcypromine (MAOI) C. venlafaxine (SNRI) D. fluoxetine (SSRI) E. methamphetamine - CORRECT ANSWER B. tranylcypromine (MAOI)
- The site of action of diazepam (Valium) to relieve anxiety is the A. spinal cord B. limbic system C. reticular formation
D. basal ganglia E. cerebellum - CORRECT ANSWER B. limbic system
- The antianxiety effect of buspirone (BuSpar) is associated with A. stimulation of DA receptors B. stimulation of serotonin receptors C. blockage of serotonin receptors D. blockade of dopamine receptors E. blockage of GABA receptors - CORRECT ANSWER C. blockage of serotonin receptors
- Flumazenil (Romazicon) is used to reverse the depressant effects of A. clozapine B. alprazolam (benzodiazepine) C. haloperidol D. chlorpromazine E. thiothixene - CORRECT ANSWER alprazolam (benzodiazepine)
- What are the main areas at which benzodiazepines exert their effects? A. limbic system B. cerebral cortex C. reticular formation D. spinal cord E. all of these - CORRECT ANSWER E. all of these
- Symptoms of Parkinsonism would be increased by A. excess levels of acetylcholine B. treatment with some antipsychotic drugs C. decreased levels of dopamine D. drug administration after a high-protein meal E. all of these - CORRECT ANSWER I had ABC highlighted I think this was a mistake please edit
- The drug classified as a dopamine receptor agonist is A. amantadine B. benztropine C. ropinirole
