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PEAT 4 Exam 2025 (Actual Exam)| All Questions and Correct Answers, Exams of Medicine

University of Texas - San Antonio Medicine

The "PEAT 4 Exam 2025" document serves as a comprehensive resource for students preparing for the Physical Therapy Examination. It contains actual exam questions and verified answers, complete with detailed explanations to ensure a thorough understanding of each topic. The document is designed to help students achieve high grades, offering insights into the latest version of the exam, which is crucial for those aiming to excel in their assessments. The document covers various clinical scenarios and corresponding therapeutic interventions. For instance, it discusses the application of pursed-lip breathing techniques for patients with emphysema, a common obstructive lung disease, and highlights why this technique is not beneficial for conditions like sarcoidosis. Furthermore, it addresses musculoskeletal assessments, such as the appropriate exercise program for a patient with forward head posture and excessive thoracic kyphosis, emphasizing the importance of posture correction.

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PEAT 4 Exam 2025 (Actual Exam)| All Questions

and Correct Answers with Detailed Explanations |

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A patient with which of the following diagnoses would MOST likely benefit from

pursed-lip breathing during exercise?

1. Peripheral vascular disease

2. Congestive heart failure

3. Emphysema

4. Sarcoidosis ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------3

Peripheral vascular disease is a vascular problem, not a pulmonary problem.

Congestive heart failure may lead to pulmonary problems, but not obstructive

problems. Emphysema is an obstructive lung disease, for which pursed-lip

breathing may be beneficial. Sarcoidosis is a restrictive lung disease for which

pursed-lip breathing is not beneficial.

A patient has a history of neck pain that is aggravated by long periods of sitting

and becomes progressively worse by evening. Range of motion and strength of

the neck and shoulders are within normal limits. Sensation and reflexes are intact

in both upper extremities. The patient has a forward head and excessive thoracic

kyphosis. The MOST appropriate exercise program should focus on:

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PEAT 4 Exam 2025 (Actual Exam)| All Questions

and Correct Answers with Detailed Explanations |

Graded A+ | Verified Answers | Just Released |

Latest Version

A patient with which of the following diagnoses would MOST likely benefit from pursed-lip breathing during exercise?

Peripheral vascular disease
Congestive heart failure
Emphysema
Sarcoidosis ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- 3 Peripheral vascular disease is a vascular problem, not a pulmonary problem. Congestive heart failure may lead to pulmonary problems, but not obstructive problems. Emphysema is an obstructive lung disease, for which pursed-lip breathing may be beneficial. Sarcoidosis is a restrictive lung disease for which pursed-lip breathing is not beneficial. A patient has a history of neck pain that is aggravated by long periods of sitting and becomes progressively worse by evening. Range of motion and strength of the neck and shoulders are within normal limits. Sensation and reflexes are intact in both upper extremities. The patient has a forward head and excessive thoracic kyphosis. The MOST appropriate exercise program should focus on:

stretching of the neck flexors and pectoral strengthening.
upper trapezius strengthening and pectoral stretching.
pectoral strengthening and rhomboid stretching.
rhomboid strengthening and axial neck retraction. ---------CORRECT ANSWER---- ------------- 3 The history suggests that prolonged improper positioning of the cervical spine resulted in neck pain. A chronic forward head and kyphosis results in hyperextension in the upper cervical spine and excessive flexion in the upper thoracic spine. Further muscle length adaptation occurs with tight anterior muscles and stretched posterior muscles. Treatment should include correction of muscle weakness or imbalance. Rhomboid strengthening and axial neck extension are the only options that are both correct. A patient suspected of having hypoglycemia is MOST likely to show which of the following signs?
Fruity smelling breath
Thirst, nausea, and vomiting
Dry, crusty mucous membranes
Difficulty speaking and concentrating ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- 4 A common mental state manifestation of hypoglycemia is difficulty speaking and concentrating, whereas in hyperglycemia there is outright confusion. The other options are all signs of hyperglycemia and not signs of hypoglycemia.

involved with patient care activities (i.e., transporting patients), the patients in the situations described in options 2, 3, and 4 are at potential risk and would require supervision by someone other than a volunteer. A physical therapist is teaching a motor skill to a patient with chronic hemiplegia. Which of the following teaching approaches should be MOST emphasized?

Habituation
Sensitization
Compensatory strategy
Recovery of normal movement ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- 4 A patient with chronic hemiplegia is unlikely to recover normal function. Compensatory strategies are used when there is a permanent loss of function which prevents reacquiring normal movement patterns. Habituation is a decrease in responsiveness that occurs as a result of repeated exposure to a nonpainful stimulus. In the acute patient, the emphasis is on recovery of normal function, but this patient has a chronic condition. Sensitization is an increased responsiveness following a threatening or noxious stimulus. A patient has low back and leg pain, with symptoms extending to the bottom of the foot. During the physical therapy examination, the patient does not report leg pain in the first test position (photograph #1) but reports a severe increase in symptoms in the second test position (photograph #2). Which of the following conclusions is MOST likely?

The pain is the result of a herniated disc.
The patient may be displaying nonorganic symptoms.
The symptoms are the result of an inflamed sciatic nerve.
The hamstrings are in a facilitated state of contraction. ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- 2 Because sitting knee extension and the straight-leg raise culminate in essentially identical positions, symptomatic responses to the two types of maneuvers should be similar. If the patient had a symptomatic herniated disc, both positions would result in a similar symptom increase. If the patient had an irritated sciatic nerve, both positions would result in a similar symptom increase. If the patient had a facilitated hamstring, both positions would result in a similar symptom response. A patient is referred for recommendations regarding purchase of a wheelchair. The measurements of the patient while sitting are 16 in (40.6 cm) across the widest point of the hips and 18 in (45.7 cm) from the rear of the buttocks to the popliteal crease. Which of the following wheelchair dimensions would be BEST suited for this patient's needs?
Seat width and seat depth of 18 in (45.7 cm)
Seat width of 18 in (45.7 cm) and seat depth of 16 in (40.6 cm)
Seat width and seat depth of 16 in (40.6 cm)
Seat width of 16 in (40.6 cm) and seat depth of 18 in (45.7 cm) ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- 2

Excessive upward rotation of the right scapula is noted when a patient attempts to perform shoulder flexion. Which of the following exercises is MOST appropriate to help correct the excessive scapular rotation?

Right scapular protraction against resistance with the right arm at 90° of flexion
Bilateral scapular elevation with the upper extremities at 180° of flexion
Wall push-ups with an isometric hold at end range with the elbows extended
Bilateral scapular adduction with the upper extremities medially (internally) rotated and adducted across the back ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- 4 Excessive upward rotation of the scapula can result from weakness of the rhomboids and latissimus dorsi (downward rotators). The scapular adduction with medial (internal) rotation and adduction of the arm would require action by those muscles. Option 1 would help strengthen the serratus anterior, an upward rotator of the scapula. Option 2 would activate the upper trapezius as well as the rhomboids, and, since the upper trapezius is also an upward rotator of the scapula, this would not be the best exercise to use. Option 3 would also help strengthen the serratus anterior, which would tend to aggravate the problem. Which of the following diagnoses is MOST associated with urinary incontinence?
Orchitis
Testicular cancer
Testicular torsion
Benign prostatic hyperplasia ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- 4

The nodular hyperplasia that occurs with benign prostatic hyperplasia causes obstruction of the urethra, resulting in urinary frequency and urge incontinence. Testicular torsion, orchitis, and testicular cancer are not associated with urinary dysfunction. A physical therapist is working on transfers with a patient who had a brainstem cerebrovascular accident. The patient has ataxia in all four extremities and a high level of extensor tone in the lower extremities. The patient has fair to good trunk control. Which of the following transfers is BEST for this patient?

Squat pivot
Sliding board
Standing pivot
Dependent tuck ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- 1 A squat-pivot transfer avoids full lower extremity extension, thus minimizing lower extremity extensor tone. A sliding-board transfer is not appropriate with a high level of ataxia in the upper extremities. A standing pivot transfer is not appropriate because it may increase the extensor tone in the lower extremities. A dependent tuck transfer does not encourage active patient participation or promote independence. A physical therapist wants to examine the relationship between lower extremity manual muscle test grades and five ranked categories of functional ambulation ability in a group of older adults. Which of the following statistics is MOST appropriate for testing this relationship?

Which of the following conditions is the MOST likely cause of a reduced vital capacity in a patient who has quadriplegia at the C5-C6 level?

Decreased anterolateral chest expansion resulting from paralysis of the external intercostal muscles
Inability of the patient to generate a negative intrapleural pressure secondary to a denervated diaphragm
A relatively high resting position of the diaphragm resulting from paralysis of the abdominal muscles
Reduced rib-cage elevation due to paralysis of the anterior scalene and sternocleidomastoid muscles ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- 1 The rib cage would not be able to expand normally during inspiration due to weakness of the external intercostal muscles, which are innervated by thoracic nerve segments. With a spinal cord lesion at the C5-C6 level, the diaphragm would still receive innervation from the phrenic nerve (C4). The anterior scalene (C4-C6) would be partially innervated and the sternocleidomastoid (C2-C3) would be fully innervated. The abdominal muscles would not be innervated since they receive their innervation from thoracic nerve segments. Paralysis of the abdominal muscles would cause the diaphragm to assume a low resting position. A physical therapist places electrodes on a patient to monitor surface electromyographic activity. The electrode placement shown in the photograph is MOST appropriate to monitor which of the following muscles?
Tensor fasciae latae
Sartorius

Rectus femoris
Gluteus minimus ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- 1 The electrode placement in the photograph is the best placement for the tensor fasciae latae. The electrodes are placed over the muscle belly and lined up parallel to the muscle fibers. The sartorius is found more distally and medially and following the direction of the muscle fibers. The rectus femoris is found more distally and central to the thigh. The gluteus minimus is a deep muscle that cannot be easily monitored directly by surface electromyography. A physical therapist places a patient on a strength training program for the lower extremities. The mode of exercise is a double-leg press unit using free weights. After 1 week, the patient shows a 10-lb (4. 5 - kg) increase in the amount of weight the patient is able to lift. What is the MOST likely cause of the patient's increase in strength?
Muscle fiber hypertrophy
Neurological adaptation
Hyperplasia of the muscle fibers
Increase in the amount of actin and myosin ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------- ---- 2 Strength increase in muscle is due to a number of factors, including neurological adaptation and muscle fiber hypertrophy with an increase in actin and myosin. Hyperplasia in humans is still controversial. Long-term changes in muscle strength are due to all of the factors listed. However, short-term changes, such as changes in 1 week, are most likely to due to neurological factors such as more

Deltoid
Rhomboid major ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- 2 Weakness in the pectoralis minor would not cause restriction of the scapula but would likely cause scapular hypermobility. Weakness in the upper trapezius would decrease upward rotation of the scapula during shoulder flexion and abduction. The more the shoulder is elevated, the more noticeable this would be. The decreased scapular movement would increase the predisposition toward impingement. Weakness in the deltoid would cause the humerus to move downward, not upward, during shoulder elevation.Weakness in the rhomboid major would not cause restriction of the scapula, but would likely cause scapular hypermobility. A patient is performing a Phase I (inpatient) cardiac rehabilitation exercise session. The physical therapist should terminate low-level activity if which of the following changes occurs?
The diastolic blood pressure increases to 120 mm Hg.
The respiratory rate increases to 20 breaths per minute.
The systolic blood pressure increases by 20 mm Hg.
The heart rate increases by 20 bpm. ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- 1 During Phase I (inpatient) cardiac rehabilitation, vital sign parameters with activity that warrant termination are: diastolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg or greater, systolic blood pressure above 210 mm Hg or an increase greater than 20 mm Hg from resting, and a heart rate that increases beyond 20 bpm above resting. The normal resting respiratory rate can range from 12 to 20 breaths per

minute in adults, so an increase to 20 breaths per minute with low-level activity would not be a reason to terminate the activity. A patient is being evaluated for possible carpal tunnel syndrome, and a nerve conduction velocity test is performed. Which of the following findings would MOST strongly support the diagnosis?

Decreased latency at the elbow.
Decreased latency at the carpal tunnel.
Increased latency at the carpal tunnel.
Increased latency at the forearm. ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- 3 Nerve conduction above and below the local nerve compression is usually normal. Latency is typically increased, not decreased, across the carpal tunnel compression site. Nerve conduction above and below the local nerve compression is usually normal. When examining a patient with a history of alcohol abuse, a physical therapist notes that the patient demonstrates fine resting tremors and hyperactive reflexes. The patient reports frequent right upper quadrant pain. Which of the following additional signs is MOST likely?
Jaundice
Hyperhidrosis
Hypotension

Dorsal aspect of the middle finger (3rd digit)
Lateral aspect of the upper arm
Medial aspect of the upper arm ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- 1 Sustained ankle clonus indicates a central nervous system dysfunction, as does the presence of a Babinski sign (that is, an upgoing great toe with stroking of the plantar foot). The other options are associated with lower motor neuron problems.

A 3-month-old infant has poor midline head control. During evaluation, the physical therapist notes facial asymmetry and observes that the infant has limitation of cervical rotation to the left and cervical lateral flexion to the right. A radiology report indicates premature fusion of the infant's cranial sutures. The infant MOST likely has:

right congenital muscular torticollis.
left congenital muscular torticollis.
right cervical facet hypomobility.
left cervical facet hypomobility. ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- 1 The infant exhibits signs of torticollis affecting the right sternocleidomastoid muscle. Torticollis is named for the side of the limited lateral flexion. Asymmetry and premature closure of sutures (plagiocephaly) are not typically seen with cervical facet hypomobility in infants.

A patient had a split-thickness skin graft for a partial-thickness burn injury to the upper extremity. The surgeon has requested range-of-motion exercises for the patient. Currently, the patient is able to actively move the upper extremity through one-third of the range of motion for shoulder flexion. Based on this finding, what is the MOST appropriate action for the physical therapist to take at this time?

Defer any range-of-motion exercises until the patient is able to participate more actively.
Begin active assistive range-of-motion exercises.
Begin bed mobility training to facilitate increased use of the upper extremity
Continue with active range-of-motion exercises. ---------CORRECT ANSWER------- ---------- 2 Deferring any range-of-motion exercises is not a practical choice, as contracture will develop postoperatively. Because this patient cannot achieve full range of motion by himself, active assistive range of motion is indicated to prevent contracture postoperatively. Although bed mobility training is a creative way to possibly increase upper extremity range of motion, given the acuity of the patient's surgical wound, the patient would need more range of motion for this intervention to be more beneficial. Continuing with only active range of motion would not facilitate adequate increases in range of motion and would not prevent contractures.

Which of the following modalities BEST addresses the cause of calcific tendinitis in the bicipital tendon?

Sensory level interferential current at 80 Hz to 100 Hz

Manual muscle testing of a patient's pelvic floor muscles reveals a grade of Poor (2/5). Which of the following positions is BEST to begin strengthening?

Supine
Standing
Seated
Walking ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- 1 A grade of Poor (2/5) is defined as full excursion in a gravity-eliminated position. All of the other options are against gravity positions, which would be inappropriate, given this grade of weakness.

During an examination of elbow strength using manual muscle testing, a patient supinates the forearm when attempting elbow flexion. Which of the following muscles is MOST likely doing the major part of the work?

Biceps brachii
Brachialis
Supinator
Brachioradialis ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- 1 The biceps brachii is both an elbow flexor and supinator, and it is most effective as a supinator with the elbow flexed to about 90° (approximately the muscle testing position). The brachialis does not cause supination (only flexion). The supinator does not flex the elbow. The brachioradialis would move the forearm to a midposition rather than fully supinating it. Therefore, when the elbow both

flexes and supinates, the biceps brachii would be the most likely muscle causing this action.

During evaluation of a patient's balance, a physical therapist gently pushes the patient backward slightly and observes how the patient recovers from the perturbation. What strategy is the patient MOST likely to use to correct for the perturbation?

Knee
Hip
Ankle
Stepping ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- 3 Regarding options 1 and 2, for larger perturbations, individuals utilize hip and knee muscles to recover the balance. Regarding option 3, for slight perturbations, most individuals use an ankle strategy. Ankle musculature is used to control the perturbation and recover the balance. Regarding option 4, if the perturbation is strong enough to cause the individual's center of mass to move outside the base of support, a stepping strategy would be employed by taking a step and increasing the size of the base of support.

Which of the following findings BEST describes normal capillary filling?

Rebound vasodilation after icing
Blood pressure of 120/76 mm Hg

PEAT 4 Exam 2025 (Actual Exam)| All Questions and Correct Answers, Exams of Medicine

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Partial preview of the text

Download PEAT 4 Exam 2025 (Actual Exam)| All Questions and Correct Answers and more Exams Medicine in PDF only on Docsity!

PEAT 4 Exam 2025 (Actual Exam)| All Questions

and Correct Answers with Detailed Explanations |

Graded A+ | Verified Answers | Just Released |

Latest Version