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PATHO 370 MIDTERM EXAM ACTUAL EXAM 2024 | 2 DIFFERENT VERSIONS | ALL QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS, Exams of Pathophysiology

PATHO 370 MIDTERM EXAM ACTUAL EXAM 2024 | 2 DIFFERENT VERSIONS | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+ | PROFESSOR VERIFIED

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2023/2024

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PATHO 370 MIDTERM EXAM ACTUAL
EXAM 2024 | 2 DIFFERENT
VERSIONS | ALL QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS | ALREADY
GRADED A+ | PROFESSOR VERIFIED
An increase in the RMP (hyperpolarized) is associated with:
A. Hypocalcemia.
B. Hypercalcemia.
C. Hypokalemia.
D. Hyperkalemia. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------C. Hypokalemia.
Hypokalemia increases the resting membrane potential. Hyperkalemia results in
hypopolarization. Hypocalcemia and hypercalcemia do not affect the resting
membrane potential.
The majority of cases of anaphylactic shock occur when a sensitized individual comes
in contact with:
A. Perfumes.
B. Antibiotics.
C. Animal proteins or dander.
D. Incompatible blood products. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------B. Antibiotics.
Anaphylactic shock is most frequently associated with antibiotic therapy. Contact
with perfumes is not the most frequent cause of anaphylactic shock.
Incompatible blood products do not lead to anaphylactic shock. Animal dander
may lead to an anaphylactic reaction, but does so less commonly than
antibiotics.
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Download PATHO 370 MIDTERM EXAM ACTUAL EXAM 2024 | 2 DIFFERENT VERSIONS | ALL QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS and more Exams Pathophysiology in PDF only on Docsity!

PATHO 370 MIDTERM EXAM ACTUAL

EXAM 2024 | 2 DIFFERENT

VERSIONS | ALL QUESTIONS AND

CORRECT ANSWERS | ALREADY

GRADED A+ | PROFESSOR VERIFIED

An increase in the RMP (hyperpolarized) is associated with: A. Hypocalcemia. B. Hypercalcemia. C. Hypokalemia. D. Hyperkalemia. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------C. Hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the resting membrane potential. Hyperkalemia results in hypopolarization. Hypocalcemia and hypercalcemia do not affect the resting membrane potential. The majority of cases of anaphylactic shock occur when a sensitized individual comes in contact with: A. Perfumes. B. Antibiotics. C. Animal proteins or dander. D. Incompatible blood products. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------B. Antibiotics. Anaphylactic shock is most frequently associated with antibiotic therapy. Contact with perfumes is not the most frequent cause of anaphylactic shock. Incompatible blood products do not lead to anaphylactic shock. Animal dander may lead to an anaphylactic reaction, but does so less commonly than antibiotics.

A serious complication of deep vein thrombosis is: A. Stroke. B. Hypertensive crisis. C. Extremity necrosis. D. Pulmonary embolus. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------D. Pulmonary embolus. Deep vein thrombosis is treated aggressively, as it is the most frequent source of pulmonary embolus. Deep vein thrombosis is not the cause of a stroke. Hypertensive crisis is unrelated to deep vein thrombosis. Extremity necrosis could result from prolonged arterial occlusion. The movement of blood through the vascular system is opposed by the force of: A. The vessel radius. B. Resistance. C. The vessel length. D. Viscosity. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------B. Resistance. The movement of blood through the vascular system is opposed by the force of resistance. Three determinants of resistance are vessel length, vessel radius, and blood viscosity. Viscosity is the thickness of fluid and has an effect on resistance. The length of the vessel does have an effect on the resistance. Vessel radius has an effect on resistance. Allostatis is best defined as: A. The overall process of adaptive change necessary to maintain survival and well- being. B. Steady-state. C. The process by which the body heals following disease.

A commonly ingested substance associated with prolongation of the bleeding time is: A. Tobacco. B. Caffeine. C. Acetaminophen. D. Aspirin. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------D. Aspirin. Many drugs are associated with prolonged bleeding times. Aspirin is known to alter normal platelet function. Acetaminophen is not associated with prolongation of bleeding time. Tobacco does not interfere with bleeding times. Caffeine does not interfere with bleeding times. The ingestion of certain drugs, foods, or chemicals can lead to secondary hypertension. T/F? ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------True. The most common tumor-suppressor gene defect identified in cancer cells is: A. APC B. DCC C. P D. Rb ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------C. P The most common tumor-suppressor gene defect identified in cancer cells involves P53. More than half of all types of human tumors lack functional P53, which inhibits cell cycling. Rb, DC, and APC are not the most common tumor- suppressor gene defects identified in cancer cells. The hallmark manifestation of acute respiratory distress syndrome is: A. Tachycardia. B. Frothy secretions.

C. Hypotension. D. Hypoxemia. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------D. Hypoxemia. The hallmark of acute respiratory distress syndrome is hypoxemia caused by intrapulmonary shunting of blood. Tachycardia, hypotension, and frothy secretion occur in this disorder but are not hallmark. Which disorder is considered a primary immunodeficiency disease? A. Radiation immunodeficiency. B. HIV/AIDS. C. Cancer immunodeficiency. D. Malnutrition immunodeficiency. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------B. HIV/AIDS. HIV/AIDS is a primary immunodeficiency disease involving destruction of T helper cells. Malnutrition immunodeficiency is a secondary immunodeficiency disorder and leads to T-cell destruction and dysfunction. Cancer immunodeficiency is a secondary immunodeficiency disorder caused by the destruction of rapidly proliferating cells from chemotherapeutic agents. Radiation immunodeficiency is a secondary immunodeficiency disorder caused by the destruction of rapidly proliferating cells from the effects of radiation. Your patient eats "lots of fat," leads a "stressful" life, and has smoked "about two packs a day for the last 40 years." Her chronic morning cough recently worsened, and she was diagnosed with a lung mass. The most likely contributing factor for development of lung cancer in this patient is: A. Urban pollutants. B. Stressful lifestyle. C. Cigarette smoking. D. High-fat diet. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------C. Cigarette smoking. The most likely contributing factor for the development of lung cancer is cigarette smoking. Tobacco smoke contains hundreds of compounds, many of which have

Which clinical finding is indicative of compartment syndrome? A. Peripheral edema. B. Redness and swelling. C. Atrophy of distal tissues. D. Absent peripheral pulses. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------D. Absent peripheral pulses. Compartment syndrome creates an effective absence of arterial circulation to an extremity. Swelling within a cast or tight dressing may contribute to the development of compartment syndrome. Compartment syndrome creates pallor in the affected extremity. Acute arterial occlusion is an emergency, and could result in profound ischemia in the involved limb. A patient with a history of myocardial infarction continues to complain of intermittent chest pain brought on by exertion and relieved by rest. The likely cause of this pain is: A. Unstable angina. B. Coronary vasospasm. C. Myocardial infarction. D. Stable angina. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------D. Stable angina. Stable angina is the most common form of chest pain and is characterized by pain that is caused under conditions of increased myocardial workload, such as physical exertion or emotional strain. Pain related to myocardial infarction is not relieved by rest. Coronary vasospasm is characterized by unpredictable attacks of angina pain. A patient with unstable angina presents with symptoms similar to myocardial infarction. The assessment findings of a 5-year-old with a history of asthma include extreme shortness of breath, nasal flaring, coughing, pulsus paradoxus, and use of accessory respiratory muscles. There is no wheezing and the chest is silent in many areas. How should you interpret your assessment? A. Since there is not wheezing, asthma is the problem, but oxygen should be started immediately anyway.

B. The child may be having such a severe asthma episode that the airways are closed, so start oxygen and get the doctor immediately. C. The child probably has consolidated pneumonia; oxygen should be started immediately. D. The signs and symptoms are consistent with asthma; start oxygen and then check to see that your stethoscope is working properly. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------B. The child may be having such a severe asthma episode that the airways are closed, so start oxygen and get the doctor immediately. The airway inflammation, edema, and bronchoconstriction of acute asthma may occlude small airways completely, so that no air is moving, which requires emergency intervention. Alicia has a history of asthma rather than pneumonia. Asthma can occur without wheezing. This is an emergency situation that requires you to start oxygen and notify the physician. The hypersecretion of mucus resulting for chronic bronchitis is the result of: A. Destruction of alveolar septa. B. Reduced inflammation. C. Recurrent infection. d. Barrel chest. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------C. Recurrent infection. Mucus provides a hospitable environment for bacterial colonization and recurrent infection. Destruction of alveolar septa and reduced inflammation are not complications of chronic bronchitis. Hypersecretion of mucus does not contribute to barrel chest. The major cause of death from leukemic disease is: A. Malnutrition. b. Kidney failure. C. Infection. D. Hypovolemic shock. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------C. Infection.

Sodium imbalances alter osmolality of fluid compartment leading to osmosis of water from the hypo-osmolar compartment to the hyperosmolar compartment. In brain cells, this leads to swelling or shrinkage of cells, and associated manifestations. A middle-aged patient has a follow up visit for a recorded blood pressure of 162/96 mm Hg taken 3 weeks ago. The patient has no significant past medical history and takes no medications, but smokes 1 1/2 packs of cigarettes per day, drinks alcohol regularly, and exercises infrequently. The patient is about 40 lbs. overweight and admits to a high-fat, high-calorie diet. At the office visit today, the patient's blood pressure is 150/92 mm Hg. What is the least appropriate intervention for this patient at this time? A. Encourage smoking cessation. B. Recheck blood pressure in 4 to 6 weeks. C. Begin lifestyle modifications. D. Begin antihypertensive drug therapy. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------D. Begin antihypertensive drug therapy. Antihypertensive drug therapy is not the first intervention in a person with modifiable risk factors. Therefore, lifestyle alterations are attempted first. Lifestyle alterations include exercise, smoking cessation, and weight loss. Blood pressure should be rechecked in 4 to 6 weeks. Smoking cessation counseling is an appropriate lifestyle alteration. Diarrhea and other lower intestinal fluid losses will contribute to: A. Mixed acid-base disorders. B. Metabolic acidosis. C. Respiratory acidosis. D. Metabolic alkalosis. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------B. Metabolic acidosis. Diarrhea results in loss of bicarbonate and leads to metabolic acidosis. Loss of bicarbonate (a base) would not lead to metabolic alkalosis. Respiratory conditions lead to respiratory acid and base disturbances; diarrhea is not a respiratory condition. Bicarbonate loss through diarrhea would not lead to any respiratory acid/base disturbance.

Hemophilia B is also known as Christmas disease. T/F? ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------True. A person who experiences a panic attack and develops hyperventilation symptoms may experience: A. Anxiety acidosis. B. Acute compensatory metabolic acidosis. C. Numbness and tingling in the extremities. D. Neuromuscular depression. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------C. Numbness and tingling in the extremities. Numbness and tingling in the extremities occurs in alkalosis as a result of increased neuromuscular irritability. Numbness and tingling as a result of hyperventilation result from increased neuromuscular irritability, not neuromuscular depression. Acidosis depresses neuromuscular irritability and thus would not cause numbness and tingling, even in compensation. First-degree heart block is characterized by: A. Variable PR interval. B. Absent P waves. C. Prolonged PR interval. D. Widened QRS complex. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------C. Prolonged PR interval. First-degree block is generally identified by a prolonged PR interval (more than 0. second) on ECG. P waves are not absent in first-degree heart block. A widened QRS complex is associated with a particular dysrhythmia, but not first-degree heart block. A variable PR interval is found in type I second-degree block. Cardiogenic shock is characterized by:

B. Acute onset of biventricular failure. C. Murmur and abnormal valves on echocardiogram. D. Family history of cardiomyopathy. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------B. Acute onset of LV dysfunction. Acute myocarditis is commonly characterized by left ventricular dysfunction or general dilation of all four heart chambers. Chest pain and ST elevation is indicative of myocardial infarction. Myocarditis is associated with viral infections. Dilated cardiomyopathy runs in families and has a genetic basis. What is likely to lead to hyponatremia? A. Insuffiecient ADH secretion. B. Excess aldosterone secretion. C. Frequent nasogastric tube irrigation with water. D. Administration of IV normal saline. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------C. Frequent nasogastric tube irrigation with water. Sodium is lost from gastric secretions when nasogastric tubes are irrigated with water. The sodium diffuses into the irrigating water and is then lost when the aspirate is withdrawn. Excessive ADH would lead to hyponatremia by retention of water in the body, thus diluting the sodium. Excess aldosterone would increase serum sodium. Normal saline is an isotonic solution and will not alter the serum sodium. Which form of leukemia demonstrates the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome? A. ALL B. CLL C. AML D. CML ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------D. CML The majority of CML cases are characterized by malignant granulocytes that carry the Philadelphia chromosome. ALL is manifested by the malignant transformation of B cells

and some T cells. CLL is associated with T-cell transformation. The Philadelphia chromosome is not seen in CLL. AML is associated with a transformation of a myeloid stem cell. What age group has a larger volume of extracellular fluid than intracellular fluid? A. Older adults. B. Infants. C. Adolescents. D. Young adults. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------B. Infants. Infants have a larger volume of extracellular fluid than intracellular fluid. Adolescents, young adults, and older adults have a larger volume of intracellular fluid than extracellular fluid. Coagulative necrosis is caused by: A. Interrupted blood supply. B. Lung tissue or damage. C. Trauma or pancreatitis. D. Dissolving of dead cells and cyst formation. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------A. Interrupted blood supply. Coagulative necrosis results from interrupted blood supply leading to ischemic cell injury. Liquefactive necrosis results from dissolving of dead cells and cyst formation. Fat necrosis is caused by trauma or pancreatitis. Caseous necrosis is caused by lung tissue damage such as that caused by tuberculosis. Hypernatremia may be caused by: A. Decreased antidiuretic hormone secretion. B. Compulsive water drinking.

of different diseases. Sequela refers to subsequent pathologic condition resulting from a disease. Convalescence is the stage of recovery after a disease, injury, or surgical operation. The majority of cardiac cells that die after myocardial infarction do so because of: A. Cell rupture. B. Thrombus. C. Insufficient glucose. D. Apoptosis. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------D. Apoptosis. MI results when prolonged or total disruption of blood flow to the myocardium causes cellular death by necrosis or apoptosis. Cardiac cells do not die as a result of cellular rupture. Insufficient glucose is not associated with myocardial death. The initiating event of MI is believed to be related to thrombus, but the resulting disruption of flow to the myocardium is because of necrosis or apoptosis. Tumor necrosis factor α and interleukin-1 contribute to shock states because they induce production of: A. Clotting factors. B. Nitric oxide. C. Catecholamines. D. Vasopressin. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------B. Nitric oxide. In septic shock, tumor necrosis factor-α, interleukin-1, and other inflammatory mediators induce vascular cells to produce excessive amounts of the vasodilator nitric oxide. Catecholamines are not produced by TNF-α and IL-1. The production of clotting factors is not induced by tumor necrosis factor-α and interleukin-1. Vasopressin production is not induced by TNF-α and IL-1. Which clinical manifestation is not likely the result of a tuberculosis infection? A. Productive cough

B. Low-grade fever C. Cyanosis D. Night sweats ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------D. Cyanosis. Cyanosis is not a typical manifestation of tuberculosis infection. A productive cough, low-grade fever, and night sweats are the typical manifestations of tuberculosis infection. Renal compensation for respiratory acidosis is evidenced by: A. Elevated CO2. B. Decreased CO2. C. Elevated HCO3- concentration. D. Decreased HCO3- concentration. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------C. Elevated HCO3- concentration. Elevated bicarbonate ion concentration is evidence of compensation for a respiratory acidosis. The lungs manage the carbon dioxide concentration. Elevated carbon dioxide is evidence of respiratory acidosis, not of compensation for it. Decreased bicarbonate ion concentration would make acidosis worse. Lusitropic impairment refers to: A. Poor contractile force. B. Impaired diastolic relaxation. C. Altered action potential conduction rate. D. Altered automaticity. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------B. Impaired diastolic relaxation. Lusitropic impairment refers to an energy-requiring process that removes free calcium ions from the cytoplasm by pumping them back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum and across the cell membrane into the extracellular fluid. Ischemia interferes with this

C. Middle-aged man with a previous history of MI. D. Young sedentary male with a high-stress job. ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------A. Elderly woman without a previous history of MI. Heart failure with normal ejection fraction is particularly likely to develop in the elderly, in women, and in those without a history of MI. A middle-aged man with a previous history of MI may have heart failure, but the older woman fits the criteria of heart failure with normal ejection fraction. A young female athlete with cardiomegaly may experience heart failure, but is not the normal patient profile for this condition. A young sedentary male with a high-stress job may experience heart failure, but this patient does not fit the normal profile for this condition. The relationship of blood flow (Q), resistance (R), and pressure (P) in a vessel can be expressed by which equation? A. Q = R/P B. R = PQ C. P = Q/R D. Q = P/R ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------D. Q = P/R. The relationship between the variables of pressure and resistance is expressed by Ohm's law: Q = P/R. Q is the blood flow, P is the pressure difference, and R is the resistance. Ohm's law is Q = P/R. R = PQ is not the expression for the relationship between blood flow, resistance, and pressure. P = Q/R is not the correct expression reflecting Ohm's law. Which group of clinical findings describes the typical presentation of ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)? A. Elevated WBC count found on routine examination, asymptomatic. B. Pain in long bones, infection, fever, bruising. C. Painless enlarged cervical lymph node, fever, weight loss. D. Vertebral fracture, hypercalcemia, bone pain ------CORRECT ANSWER--------------B. Pain in long bones, infection, fever, bruising.

The onset of symptoms of ALL is abrupt and may begin when a child refuses to walk or begins to exhibit loss of appetite, fatigue, or abdominal pain. Bruising, fever, and infection are also common early findings. Vertebral fractures, elevated calcium levels, and bone pain are more frequently associated with plasma cell myeloma. Asymptomatic onset is generally found with CLL and is often found by accident on a routine blood count. Enlarged cervical lymph nodes are seen more commonly in Hodgkin disease. A patient, who is 8 months pregnant, has developed eclampsia and is receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate to prevent seizures. To determine if her infusion rate is too high, you should regularly: A. Check the patellar reflex; if it stays the same, her infusion rate probably is too high and she is at risk for respiratory depression or cardiac arrest. B. Check the patellar reflex; if it becomes weak or absent, her infusion rate probably is too high and she is at risk for respiratory depression or cardiac arrest. C. Check the patellar reflex; if it becomes more and more hyperactive, her infusion rate probably is too high and she is at risk for respiratory depression or cardiac arrest. D. Check for seizure activity; if no seizures occur, her infusion rate is correct. ------ CORRECT ANSWER--------------B. Check the patellar reflex; if it becomes weak or absent, her infusion rate probably is too high and she is at risk for respiratory depression or cardiac arrest. Hypermagnesemia causes decreased neuromuscular excitability and testing the patellar reflex can detect that. Hypermagnesemia causes decreased, not increased, neuromuscular excitability. If the patellar reflex stays the same, the infusion rate is therapeutic. Watching for seizure activity is a dangerous course of action. Hypermagnesemia can cause respiratory depression and cardiac arrest, so you need to assess for its development. RhoGAM (an Rh antibody) would be appropriate in an Rh-_____ woman with an _____ Rh-_____ antibody titer carrying an Rh-_____ fetus. A. Negative; negative; negative B. Negative; negative; positive C. Positive; negative; negative