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Orthopedic Nursing Review: Exam Q&A 2025, Exams of Medicine

Kent State University (KSU) - East Liverpool CampusMedicine

A comprehensive review of orthopedic nursing, covering key topics such as rheumatoid arthritis, osteoarthritis, total hip arthroplasty, spinal disorders, and metabolic bone abnormalities. It includes questions and answers that are useful for exam preparation and clinical practice. The material is presented in a concise and organized manner, making it an excellent resource for nursing students and practicing nurses looking to enhance their knowledge in orthopedic care. It also covers perioperative care, tumor management, and common metabolic bone diseases, offering a well-rounded overview of the field. This review course exam is designed to test and reinforce understanding of essential concepts in orthopedic nursing, ensuring a solid foundation for providing high-quality patient care. The content is structured to facilitate quick review and knowledge retention, making it an invaluable tool for both academic and professional development.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 05/18/2025

Nurseexcel
Nurseexcel 🇺🇸

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Orthopedic Nursing review Course Exam
Questions and Answers 2025 Verified
1. Rheumatoid Arthritis: * Systemic, Multi system inflammatory disorder
* Affects synovial membrane of the joints
* Periods of exacerbation and remissions
2. Rheumatoid Arthritis Presentation: * Uniform joint space narrowing
* Peak onset ages 40-60
* Hypertrophied synovium (lining) thickens an invades surrounding tissue
* Nodules in the joints
* Morning Stiffness and stiffness after rest
* Generalized fatigue
* Ulnar deviation
3. Rheumatoid Arthritis Epidemiology/Pathophysiology: * Genetic predisposi- tion
* Laxity, sublaxation and contractures
4. Osteoarthritis: Slow, progressive, non-inflammatory
Affects spine, fingers, knees and hips
5. Osteophyte or bone spurs are common with what disease?: Osteoarthritis
6. The gold standard test for this disease is radiographic changes: Osteoarthri- tis
7. Symptoms Osteoarthritis: * Asymmetric joints
* AM Stiffness
* Stiffness with inactivity
* Stiffness with weather changes
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Download Orthopedic Nursing Review: Exam Q&A 2025 and more Exams Medicine in PDF only on Docsity!

Orthopedic Nursing review Course Exam

Questions and Answers 2025 Verified

  1. Rheumatoid Arthritis: * Systemic, Multi system inflammatory disorder
  • Affects synovial membrane of the joints
  • Periods of exacerbation and remissions
  1. Rheumatoid Arthritis Presentation: * Uniform joint space narrowing
  • Peak onset ages 40 - 60
  • Hypertrophied synovium (lining) thickens an invades surrounding tissue
  • Nodules in the joints
  • Morning Stiffness and stiffness after rest
  • Generalized fatigue
  • Ulnar deviation
  1. Rheumatoid Arthritis Epidemiology/Pathophysiology: * Genetic predisposi- tion
  • Laxity, sublaxation and contractures
  1. Osteoarthritis: Slow, progressive, non-inflammatory Affects spine, fingers, knees and hips
  2. Osteophyte or bone spurs are common with what disease?: Osteoarthritis
  3. The gold standard test for this disease is radiographic changes: Osteoarthri- tis
  4. Symptoms Osteoarthritis: * Asymmetric joints
  • AM Stiffness
  • Stiffness with inactivity
  • Stiffness with weather changes
  • Antalgic gait-limp or giving way sensation
  • Joint crepitus
  • Knock kneed or bow-legged
  • Heberden's Nodes
  • Bouchard's Nodes
  1. Valgus knees is the same as: Knock knees
  2. Varus knees is the same as: Bow legged
  3. Heberden's Nodes are in what joint?: Distal (DIP)
  4. Bouchard's nodes are in what joint?: Proximal (PIP)
  5. This is the first drug of choice for treating Osteoarthritis: Acetaminopehn (Tylenol)
  6. Total Hip Arthroplasty: Anterior approach benefits and cons: Pro: less soft tissue disturbance Less precautions after SX 3 - 4 inch incision Cons: Technically challenging
  1. What is the classic test to determine herniated disc?: Straight Leg Raise
  2. What is the gold standard conservative treatment for a herniated disc?: * Bed rest- Max of 3 days
  3. What are the symptoms of Cauda Equina Syndrome?: * New onset of bowel or bladder incontinence
  • Numbness in the saddle area or perineum
  1. What is the cause of Cauda Equina Syndrome?: Pressure on the plexus nerve in the lumbar spine
  2. What is the treatment for Cauda Equina Syndrome?: Immediate decompres- sive laminectomy
  3. This spinal disorder is a Pars Interarticularis defect?: Spondylolysis
  4. This spinal disorder is an anterior translation of one vertebra on another (or slipped forward)?: Spondylolisthesis
  1. This is a posterior hump in the thoracic spine: Kyphosis
  2. This spinal disorder is associated with Scheurmann's Disease, is neuro- muscular and presents with ankylosing spondylitis?: Kyphosis
  3. What does NPO mean?: Nil Per Os/Nothing by mouth
  4. What is the standard time frame for a patient to be NPO prior to SX?: 6 hours
  5. What are the main allergies that should be checked for prior to SX?: Shell- fish
  • Bedadine
  • Seafood
  • Medications
  • Metal
  • Latex
  1. This SX associated condition can occur do to the following: IV access, blood loss, fluid overload, urine output: Fluid Volume Deficit
  2. This condition is an inherited hypermetabolic syndrome?: Malignant hyper- thermia
  3. Triggers for Malignant hyperthermia are:: * Neuromuscular blocking agents- SUCCINYLCHOLINE
  • Certain anesthetic agents
  1. What is the first drug of choice for treating malignant hyperthermia?: - Dantrolene
  2. What are the 7 drugs treatments for malignant hyperthermia?: 1) Dantro- lene
  1. Ice IV Saline solution
  2. Ice bags around patient
  3. Gastric/rectal lavage
  4. Lab work
  1. What are the most common areas of the body for osteosarcoma tumor formation?: Distal femur and proximal tibia
  • jaw, shoulder, hip and knee are other common areas
  1. Chondrosarcomas are most commonly found in what areas of the body?- : Femur and Pelvis
  2. This type of sarcoma accounts for 16% of primary bone cancers?: Ewing's Sarcoma
  3. Ewing's Saromas are typically found in what areas of the body?: Long bones
  • legs, arms, ribs, pelvis and spine
  1. This tumor stage is a low-grade cell, totally within the bone with no metas- tasis?: IA
  2. This tumor stage is a low-grade cell, but has grown through the wall of the bone with no metastasis?: IB
  3. This tumor stage is a high-grade cell and is totally within the bone with no metastasis?: IIA
  4. This tumor stage is a high-grade cell but has grown through the wall of the bone with no metastasis?: IIB
  5. This tumor stage is when the caner is any grade and has metastasized?: III
  6. This CA treatment is used preoperatively to shrink bone tumors to facilitate resection?: Chemotherapy
  7. Common side effects of this treatment include:
  • Stomatitis
  • Anemia
  • Nausea/vomiting
  • Alopecia
  • Neutropenia
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Neuropathy
  • Diarrhea/consitpation: Chemotherapy
  1. When faced with amputation of a limb do to a cancerous tumor, what is the golden rule regarding saving the limb?: Life over limb
  2. The most common metabolic bone abnormalities are caused by what?: - Abnormal quantities of minerals such as Calcium, and Phosporous
  3. Cells used in bone formation: This cell builds bone: Osteoblasts
  4. Cells used in bone formation: This cell takes away bone (chewers): Osteoclasts

These things upon testing are indicative of Hyperparathyroidism: * Serum Calcium > 10 mg/dl

  • Increase in urinary calcium excretion in 24 hr urine test
  • Increase in alkaline phosphates
  • Increase in PTH Radioimmunoassay
  • Decrease DEXA bone density
  1. What are conservative treatment measures for Hyperparathyrodism?: * Adequate hydration
  • Avoid thiazide diuretics
  • Adequate Calcium intake
  1. What is the Surgical treatment option for Hyperparathyroidsim?: Parathy- roidectomy- Remove the adenoma and leave 1/2 of the lobe for calcium production.
  2. Why is it important to leave 1/2 the lobe when having a parathyroidecto- my?: It is needed for calcium production
  1. This thyroid condition is usually caused by damage to the parathyroid during surgery, or by some malabsorption disorders?: Hypoparathyroidism
  2. What are the signs and symptoms of Hypoparathyroidism?: * Muscle spasm/tetany/excitability
  • Increase in deep tendon reflexes
  • Dry skin/hair loss
  • Weakened tooth enamel
  1. Diagnosis Hypoparathyroidism: What are lab tests that are indicative of Hypoparathyroidsm?: * Decrease serum Calcium
  • Increase Serum Phosphorus
  • Decrease in PTH
  • Decrease in Vitamin D
  • Decrease in urinary Calcium
  • Increased bone density due to retained calcium
  1. What is an acute sign of Hypoparathyroidism?: Hypocalcemia=Tetany
  2. The goal of emergent management of Hypoparathyroidism is to prevent what?: Prevent Laryngeal spasms, tetany and seizures
  3. What medications should be given to emergently control Hypoparathy- roidism?: * IV Calcium Gluconate
  • Chloride
  1. What are some long term Hypoparathyroid management treatments?: * Lifelong vitamin D therapy
  • Lifelong Calcium supplements
  • Muscle relaxants to control spasm
  1. This surgical treatment for Osteoporosis consists of inflating the bladder of the vertebral body and injecting cement into the vertebral body?: Kypho- plasty
  2. This disease is also known as Osteitis Deformans (Bone Deformity)?: - Paget's Disease
  3. This disease is classified by accelerated and abnormal bone remodeling, large irregular shaped bones and fragile bones?: Paget's Disease
  4. This condition associated with Paget's Disease causes a hearing deficit (conductive hearing loss)?: Acoustic Neuroma
  5. Paget's Disease causes a bizarre appearance of bones, what is the appear- ance?: Mosaic Pattern
  6. This condition in sudden in onset, generally involves one joint and causes Urate crystal nodules (tophi): Gout
  7. What are self management approaches to gout?: * Hydration > 2 liters
  • Weight reduction
  • Weight bearing restrictions in the acute phase
  1. What are pharmacologic treatments for gout?: * NSAIDS-Indometicin
  • Colochicine
  • Allopurinol
  • Probenecid
  • Oral glucocorticosteriod
  • Febuxostat
  1. What joint does Gout normally present in?: MTP
  • 1st metetarsal
  1. This disease is tick borne?: Lyme Disease
  1. What is a sign of early presentation of Lyme Disease?: Distinct Skin rash with local lesions
  • HX of walking through woods
  1. What is the first stage of Lyme Disease?: * Erythema Migran (bulls eye) rash 7-10 days
  • Headache/fever/malaise
  • TX with antibiotics
  1. Late stage presentation of Lyme Disease: * Chronic arthritis
  • Bells Palsy
  • Poor Memory
  1. What is the gold standard test for diagnosing Lyme Disease?: The ELISA screen for antibodies
  2. How is Lyme Disease treated?: Antibiotics
  • PNC and Rocephin
  1. What are signs of Polymyositis?: * V-shaped rash on neck or chest
  • Falls unrelated to balance
  • Heliotrope Rash
  1. This is the most classic and profound symptoms of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?: Butterfly rash on face
  2. Other symptoms of Systemic Lupus are?: * Photosensitivity
  • Arthritis
  • Fever
  • Anemia
  • Joint Pain
  • Hair Loss
  • Ulcers in Mouth
  1. What are treatment options for Systemic Lupus?: * No Cure
  • NSAIDS
  • Plasmaphoresis
  • Biologics
  1. Pain at 11 out of 18 tender points on the body confirms what diagnosis?- : Fibromyalgia
  2. The treatment for this condition involves wearing shoes on the wrong feet and serial casting in severe childhood cases: Metatarsus Adductus
  3. Genu Valgus is also known as what?: Knock knees
  4. Genu Valgus is common in what age group?: 3 - 5 years old Improves by age 7
  5. Genu Varus is also known as what?: Bow legged
  6. Genu Varus can spontaneously resolve by what age?: 18 - 24 months
  7. What is the key measurement for Genu Valgus and Genu Varus presenta- tion?: 2. cm
  8. This disease is common in pole vaulters and runners?: Osgood-Schlatter Disease
  9. This disease involves a palpable lump at the tibia tubercle and pain with forced knee flexion/extension?: Osgood-Schlatter Disease
  10. This disorder is common in children < 3 years, mainly effects females and common in the first born?: Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH)
  11. This disorder presents as problematic diapering, a leg length discrepancy and unequal skin folds?: Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH)
  12. This test requires the hip to be pushed out posteriorly?: Barlow's
  13. This test is also known as the "click test" with hip abduction and lifting to reduce the hip?: Ortolani's
  14. Nursing care for Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip includes this method?:
  1. This condition is the posterior displacement of the proximal femoral epiphysis?: Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis
  2. When diagnosing Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis, what does the x-ray look like?: Ice cream off the cone
  3. This form of scoliosis is the most common and has familial tendencies?- : Idiopathic
  4. This form of scoliosis is a malformation of the bony vertebral segments?- : Congenital
  5. This form of scoliosis involves paralysis of the trunk muscles and a HX of Cerebral Palsy or Muscular Dystrophy?: Neuromuscular/Paralytic
  6. What degree of scoliosis curvature requires just observation?: <20 de- grees
  7. What degree of scoliosis curvature requires a TLSO brace?: 20 - 40 de- grees
  8. What degree of scoliosis curvature requires surgical fixation?: >40 de- grees
  9. Osteogenesis Imperfecta is also known as?: Brittle Bone Disease
  10. What are signs of Osteogenesis Imperfecta?: Blue Sclera Shepherd crook deformity Deafness Dentinogesis Thin, translucent skin
  11. VonRecklinghausen is also known as?: Neurofirbromatosis
  12. Cafe-au-lait spots are associated with which form of Neurofibromatosis?- : VonRecklinghausen
  13. Vestibular Neurofibromatosis is associated with what nerve damage?: 8th cranial nerve
  1. 8th cranial nerve damage from Vestibular Neurofibromatosis causes what?: Deafness/Acoustic neuromas
  2. This motor disorder is the result of hypoxia to the brain?: Cerebral Palsy
  3. What are the three types of Cerebral Palsy?: Spastic-Cortial Tract Dyskinetic-Athetoid Ataxic-Cerebellum
  4. What are the three main lab studies used in diagnosing Cerebral Palsy?- : Barium Swallow EEG Gait analysis
  5. This condition is a neural tube defect?: Myelomeningocele-Spina Bifida