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OPOTA SPO's FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS & DETAILED ANSWERS GRADED A+, Exams of Nursing

Utah State University (USU)Nursing

OPOTA SPO's FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS & DETAILED ANSWERS GRADED A+

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 07/06/2025

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OPOTA SPO's FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS & DETAILED
ANSWERS GRADED A+
The relationship between an SPO and a test question is, - CORRECT ANSWER >>>• The test
question must respond directly to the SPO and for every SPO there is a test question.
The ultimate reason for law enforcement training is - CORRECT ANSWER >>>• To be able to
protect the life and property of yourself and the public.
The term role is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>>• Characteristics and expected social
behavior of an individual.
• Those behaviors typically performed by an individual in a particular situation or occupation.
Occupational Roles are defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>>• Behavior performed in the course
of perusing one's job or vocation.
- Role Conflict occurs when, - CORRECT ANSWER >>>• The officer perceives a clash between
competing perceptions, values, and standards when deciding what behavior is appropriate.
The term Stress is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>>• A state of physical or Psychological
arousal.
• The wear and tear on the body.
A Critical Incident is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>>• A Specific event which causes
unusually strong emotional reaction and which has the potential to interfere with the ability to
function either at the scene or later.
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Download OPOTA SPO's FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS & DETAILED ANSWERS GRADED A+ and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

OPOTA SPO's FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS & DETAILED

ANSWERS GRADED A+

The relationship between an SPO and a test question is, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • The test question must respond directly to the SPO and for every SPO there is a test question. The ultimate reason for law enforcement training is - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • To be able to protect the life and property of yourself and the public. The term role is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • Characteristics and expected social behavior of an individual.

  • Those behaviors typically performed by an individual in a particular situation or occupation. Occupational Roles are defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • Behavior performed in the course of perusing one's job or vocation.
  • Role Conflict occurs when, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • The officer perceives a clash between competing perceptions, values, and standards when deciding what behavior is appropriate. The term Stress is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • A state of physical or Psychological arousal.
  • The wear and tear on the body. A Critical Incident is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • A Specific event which causes unusually strong emotional reaction and which has the potential to interfere with the ability to function either at the scene or later.

The Four (4) categories of stress are, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. Cognitive

  1. Physical
  2. Emotional
  3. Behavioral Initial Intervention Techniques are, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. Physical Exercises
  4. Structured Time
  5. Talk to Friends and Family
  6. Eat Healthy Foods
  7. Don't Make Life Changes
  • The ten (10) Community Policing Philosophies are, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. Community policing is both a philosophy and an organizational strategy that allows the police and community residents to work closely together in a new way to solve the problems of crime, fear of crime, physical and social disorder, and neighborhood decay.
  1. Community policing organizational strategy first demands that everyone in the department, including both civilian and sworn personal, must investigate ways to translate the philosophy into practice.
  2. To implement true community policing, Police departments must also create and develop a new breed of line officer, the Community Policing Officer (CPO), who acts as the direct link between the police and the community.
  3. The CPO's broad role demands continuous, sustained contact with the law-abiding people in the community, so that together they can explore creative new solutions to local concerns involving crime, fear of crime; disorder and decay, with private citizens serving as unpaid volunteers.

Due Process of law is defined as - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • The process of assuring fundamental fairness in the application of criminal justice. Probable Cause is defined as - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • The fact and circumstances which would lead a reasonable person to believe that a condition exists that justifies the action to be taken. Proof beyond a Reasonable doubt is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • The accused's guilt must be established to the point that the facts proven must, by virtue of probative force, establish guilt. Preponderance of Evidence is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • Where there is more likelihood of an event than there is doubt. Factual Guilt plus Legal Guilt is described as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • The accused did in fact commit the crime or act in question, or there is substantial evidence of proof beyond a reasonable doubt the accused did so. The three (3) components of legal guilt are, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. Was the accused properly treated in being brought to justice?

  1. Was he/she given his/her procedural rights?
  2. Was due process adhered to? How does the Crime Control Perspective contrast with the Due Process perspective? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • Crime Control- The focus is on factual guilt and speedy process of the accused tends view the offender as guilty until proven innocent. Nicknamed "assembly line justice".
  • Due Process- The accused is afforded the proper constitutional and civil rights with emphasis places on following proper procedures. Nicknamed "obstacle course justice" because of the number of technicalities built into the system.
  • Civil Rights are defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • The rights and privileges afforded all persons in society by the legislative acts of Congress, State, and Local Ordinances. Section 42 USC 1983 is, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • Every person who, under color of any statute, ordinance, regulation, custom, or usage, of any State or Territory or the District of Columbia, subjects, or causes to be subjected, any citizen of the United States or other person within the jurisdiction there of to the deprivation of any rights, privileges, or immunities secured by the Constitution and laws, shall be liable to the party injured in an action at law, suit in equity, or other proper proceeding for redress. The Criminal Justice System is, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • The formal system established by the United States for maintaining social control and handling criminal conduct. The four (4) components of the Criminal Justice System are, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. Law Enforcement.
    1. Prosecution and Defense.
    2. Judiciary.
    3. Corrections. Courts of Ohio are, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • Supreme Court of Ohio.
    • Court of Appeals.
    • Common Pleas Court.
    • County Court.
    • Municipal Court.
    • Mayor Court.
    • Court of Claims.

The three (3) requirements which must be satisfied by a Felony sentence imposed by the court are, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. Reasonably calculated to achieve the consideration of the Court.

  1. Must be commensurate with and not demeaning to the seriousness of the offenders conduct and its impact on the victim.
  2. Must be consistent with sentences imposed for similar crimes committed by other offenders with similar circumstances.
  • The eleven (11) sequential steps necessary to process an adult Felon through the Criminal Justice System, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. Investigation.
  1. Arrest.
  2. Booking.
  3. Initial Appearance.
  4. Pre-luminary Hearing.
  5. Grand Jury.
  6. Arraignment.
  7. Pre-trial Motions and Hearings.
  8. Trial.
  9. Sentences.
  10. Appeals.
  • The seven (7) sequential steps for an adult misdemeanor, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. Investigation.
  1. Arrest/Summons/Citation.
  2. Initial Appearance.
  3. Arraignment.
  4. Trial.
  5. Sentencing.
  1. Appeals The nine (9) stages of the Juvenile Justice process, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. Investigation.
  2. Taking Into custody.
  3. Intake/ Detention Hearing.
  4. Formal Complaint.
  5. Pre-adjudication Hearing.
  6. Pre-luminary Conferences.
  7. Adjudication Hearing.
  8. Disposition.
  9. Appeal. Ethics are defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • The moral actions, conduct, motives and character of an individual. Four (4) factors which most likely contribute to unethical behavior, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. Anger.
  10. Lust (desire).
  11. Greed.
  12. Peer Pressure. The nine (9) ethical responsibilities of a Peace Officer, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. To treat everyone professionally.
  13. A responsibility to yourself to maintain your self-respect.
  14. To your own profession.
  15. To your family.

The ten (10) principles of Community Policing, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. Philosophy.

  1. Commitment.
  2. Personalized.
  3. Proactive.
  4. Trust.
  5. Change.
  6. Futuristic.
  7. Enforcement.
  8. Special Needs.
  9. Grass Roots. Three (3) essential elements of Community Policing, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. Partnership
  10. Empowerment
  11. Problem Solving The four (4) steps in problem solving - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. Scanning.
  12. Analysis.
  13. Response.
  14. Assessment. Two (2) examples of Community Policing initiatives that reduce and prevent crime, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. Neighborhood Watch
  15. Citizens Police Academy the five (5) uses for field notes, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. Preservation of knowledge in written form.
  1. Foundation for the formal written report.
  2. Aids in further investigation.
  3. Evidence in court.
  4. Documentation of the officer's efforts. The eight (8) types of information the be in field notes, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. Complete info on victims, witnesses, and suspects involved.
  5. Dated and time of offense or incident being reported.
  6. Location of occurrence.
  7. Type of place where offence or incident took place.
  8. Details of offense or incident being reported.
  9. Other important information.
  10. Corresponding report number. The eight (8) guidelines followed when taking a field note, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. Head notebook page with day and time of shift.
  11. Do not place information from one incident on the same page with information from another.
  12. Write or print neatly so that you can read and understand your note later.
  13. Record all information in ink.
  14. Let victims and witnesses talk through the event before you start recording notes.
  15. Ask clarifying follow up questions.
  16. Be as complete as possible.
  17. Do not record personal information in your notebook. The six (6) essential characteristics of a report - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. Who.
  18. What.
  • Procedural Law is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • The prescribed methods of enforcing rights or obtaining redress for their invasion. Substantive Law is, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • The part of law that creates, defines, and regulates rights. Case Law is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • The aggregate of reported cases as forming a body of jurisprudence or the law of a particular subject as evidence or formed by the adjudged cases, in distinction to statutes and other sources of law. Force is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • Any violence, compulsion, or constraint physically exerted by any means on or against a person or thing. Deadly Force is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • Any force that carries substantial risk that it will proximately result in the death of any person. Physical Harm to Persons is defined as - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • Any injury, illness, or physiological impairment regardless of gravity or duration. Physical Harm to Property is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • Any tangible or intangible damage to property that, in any degree, results in the loss to its value or interferers with its use or enjoyment. Serious Physical Harm to a Person is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • Any mental illness or condition of such gravity as would normally require hospitalization or prolonged psychiatric care.
    • Any physical harm that carries a substantial risk of death.
    • Any physical harm that involves some permanent incapacity, whether partial or total or that involves some temporary, substantial incapacity.
  • Any physical harm that involves some permanent disfigurement or involves some temporary, serious disfigurement.
  • Any physical harm involving acute pain of such duration as to result in substantial suffering or that involves any degree of prolonged pain or intractable pain. Serious Physical Harm to Property is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • The substantial loss to the value of the property or requires a substantial amount of time, effort, or money to repair or replace.
  • Temporarily prevent the use or enjoyment of the property or substantially interferes with its use or enjoyment for an extended period of time. Sexual Conduct is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • Vaginal intercourse between a male and female; anal intercourse, fellatio, and cunnilingus between persons regardless of sex and without privilege to do so, the insertion, however slight of any part of the body or any instrument, apparatus, or other object into the vaginal or anal opening of another. Sexual Contact is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • For the purpose of sexual arousing or gratifying either person any touching of erogenous zones of another including without limitation: thigh, genitals, buttock, pubic region, and if the person is a female the breast.
  • Sexual Activity is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • Sexual conduct, sexual contact, or both. Spouse is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • A person married to the offender at the time of an alleged offense. Serious Physical harm to Property is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • Harm to property that result in loss to the value of the property of $1,000 or more. An Overt Act is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • An open act, done outwardly, without attempts to conceal and performed pursuant to and manifesting a specific intent or design.

Probable Cause becomes stale when, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • Information that gave rise to probable may become "stale" when, after a warrant is issued but before it is executed; officers obtain information which contradicts the earlier information that gave rise to the probable cause. The usual method of identifying the person to be arrested on the arrest warrant is, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • Insert his/her name in the warrant. The four (4) requirements for the execution of a valid search warrant are, **- CORRECT ANSWER

** 1. The executing officer must be specifically named or fall within the class designated on the search warrant.

  1. Warrant must be executed within the jurisdictional limits.
  2. The arresting officer must make known his/her purpose.
  3. The officer usually must show the arrest warrant or advise the arrestee that a warrant has been issued.
  • The circumstances under which an arrest warrant may be executed in the home of a third party are, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. There is also a warrant to search the premise for the person to be arrested.
  1. Or, the officer has consent.
  2. Or, there are exigent circumstances The seven (7) sources of information on which an officer may rely in establishing probable cause to make a warrantless arrest are, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. Personal observation.
  3. Informants tips.
  4. Reports from another officer or agency.
  5. Leads furnished by the victims or witness to the crime.
  6. Physical evidence found at the scene.
  1. Past criminal record of the suspect.
  2. Non-custodial statements made by a suspect.
  • When can an officer make a warrantless, nonconsensual entry into a private dwelling in order to arrest the resident? - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • The court determined that exigent circumstances must exist which demand an immediate response before an officer would be justified in conducting a warrantless, non consensual entry into a private dwelling in order to arrest the resident. The standard which governs whether a summons may be issued in lieu of an arrest warrant is, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • Whether a summons is reasonably likely to ensure the accused's presence at trial. The term "hot/fresh pursuit" is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • The pursuit of a person who is endeavoring to avoid arrest without unreasonable interruption. An officer is authorized to pursue, arrest, and detain, outside of the officer's jurisdiction until a warrant may be obtained when, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • the pursuit takes place without reasonable delay after the offense is committed; and the pursuit is initiated within the jurisdiction where the officer is appointed, employed, or elected' and the offense is a felony, a misdemeanor of the first or second degree, or substantially equivalent municipal ordinance or an offense for which points may be assessed. Using the Terry rational the circumstances an officer my detain a person are, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • An officer may detain an individual based upon the officer's reasonable, articulable suspicion that crime was being planned or was in the process of being executed. The Amendment to the United States Constitution, which is the originating source for all laws pertaining to search and seizures of persons is, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • The 4th Amendment.

The three (3) criteria needed to establish the "plain view" exception to the search warrant requirement are, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. The officer must be legally on the premises from where the observation is made.

  1. The officer must not violate the 4th Amendment to make the observation.
  2. The incriminating nature of the item must be immediately made. The key to determining whether consent to search is in violation of the 4th Amendment is, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • Whether or not the consent to search was given voluntarily A third party's consent to search would be binding on the property owner when - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • The third party has joint authority and control over the area the officer wishes to search. The rational for the Motor Vehicle Exception to the search warrant requirement is, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • Based on the fact that a vehicle could easily be moved from the jurisdiction in which the warrant was to be obtained. An officer may conduct a 'Protective Sweep' of a motor vehicle only if, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • The officer can articulate a reasonable suspicion that the vehicle contains some type of weapon, and the suspect or some other person reasonably has access to that weapon.
  • An officer may search an automobile and the containers within it, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • Whenever probable cause exists to believe contraband or evidence is contained in the motor vehicle or its containers. The five (5) factors a court will consider in determining if an "inventory" search of a motor vehicle is reasonable are, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 1. The car was lawfully impounded.
  1. The inventory was conducted after the impoundment.
  2. The owner was not present to make other arrangements for the safe keeping of the vehicle.
  1. The inventory was prompted by valuables in plain view and was pursuant to standard police procedure.
  2. The inventory was not a pretext to conceal an investigatory search.
  • The hurdles by which a confession must pass before it may be received into evidence in a court of law are, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • It must be voluntary and trustworthy.
  • It must not have been obtained due to a delay in taking the defendant before a judge or magistrate for arraignment.
  • It must not be obtained as a result of violations of the defendants Miranda rights.
  • It must not be obtained as a result of an illegal arrest or an illegal search.
  • It must not be obtained in violation to the defendant's right to council. The free and voluntary rule is defined as, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • A confession of a person accused of a crime is admissible in evidence against the accused only if it was freely and voluntary made without duress, fear, or compulsion in its inducement and full knowledge of nature and consequences of the confession. The test a court will apply in determining whether a confession was freely and voluntarily given is, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • The totality of the circumstances. The areas to which a court will refer in looking at the totality of the circumstances surrounding a confession are, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • Use of force
  • Threats or promises
  • Psychological coercion. An officer is required to read Miranda Warnings to a suspect, - CORRECT ANSWER >>> • During a police custodial interrogation.