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CBT Test Bank Questions and Answers 2024
1. What is the role of the NMC? a) To represent or campaign on behalf of nurses and midwifes b) To regulate hospital or other healthcare settings in the UK c) To regulate health care assistance d) To regulate nurses and midwives in the UK to protect the public 2. What is the purpose of The NMC Code? a) It outlines specific tasks or clinical procedures b) It ascertains in detail a nurse's or midwife's clinical expertise c) It is a tool for educating prospective nurses and midwives 3. All are purposes of NMC except: a) NMC’s role is to regulate nurses and midwives in England, Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland. b) It sets standards of education, training, conduct and performance so that nurses and midwives can deliver high quality healthcare throughout their careers. c) It makes sure that nurses and midwives keep their skills and knowledge up to date and uphold its professional standards. d) It is responsible for regulating hospitals or other healthcare settings.
4. The UK regulator for nursing & midwifery professions within the UK with a started aim to protect the health & well-being of the public is: a) GMC b) NMC c) BMC d) WHC 5. Which of the following agency set the standards of education, training and conduct and performance for nurses and midwives in the UK? a) NMC b) DH c) CQC d) RCN 6. What do you mean by code of ethics? A) Legal activities of a registered nurse who work in the UK B) Legislative body to control nurses 7. The Code contains the professional standards that registered nurses and midwives must uphold. UK nurses and midwives must act in line with the Code, whether they are providing direct care to individuals, groups or communities or bringing their professional knowledge to bear on nursing and midwifery practice in other roles; such as leadership, education or research. What 4 Key areas does the code cover: a) Prioritise people, practise effectively, preserve safety, promote professionalism and trust b) Prioritise people, practise safely, preserve dignity, promote professionalism and trust c) Prioritise care, practise effectively, preserve security, promote professionalism and trust d) Prioritise care, practise safely, preserve security, promote kindness and trust
d) Communication
13. Which of the following is NOT one of the six fundamental values for nursing, midwifery and care staff set out in compassion in Practice Nursing, Midwifery & care staff? a) Care b) Consideration c) Communication d) Compassion 14. A nurse delegates duty to a health assistant, what NMC standard she should keep in mind while doing this? a) She transfers the accountability to care assistant b) RN is accountable for care assistant’s actions c) No need to assess the competency, as the care assistant is expert in her care area d) Healthcare assistant is accountable to only her senior 15. According to law in England, UK when you faced with a situation of emergency what is your action? a) Should not assist when it is outside of work environment b) Law insists you to stop and assist c) You are not obliged in any way but as a professional duty advises you to stop and assist d) Do not involve in the situation 16. A patient has been assessed as lacking capacity to make their own decisions, what government legislation or act should be referred to: a) Health and Social Care Act (2012) b) Mental capacity Act (2005) c) Carers (Equal opportunities) Act (2004) d) All of the above 17. Under the Carers (Equal opportunities) Act (2004) what are carers entitled to?
a) Their own assessment b) Financial support c) Respite care d) All of the above
18. How many steps to discharge planning were identified by the Department of Health (DH 2010)? a) 5 steps b) 8 steps c) 10 steps d) 12 steps 19. The single assessment process was introduced as part of the National Service Framework for Older People (DH 2001) in order to improve care for this groups of patients. a) True b) False 20. Under the Carers (Equal opportunities) Act (2004) what are carers entitled to? a) Their own assessment b) Financial support c) Respite care d) All of the above 21. Which law provides communication aid to patient with disability? a) Communication Act b) Equality Act c) Mental Capacity Act d) Children and Family Act 22. What law should be taken into consideration when a patient has hearing difficulties and would need hearing aids? a) Mental capacity Act
a) Abuse mostly happens in nursing and residential homes. b) Abuse can take place anywhere there is a vulnerable adult. c) Abuse can take place in a day care centre. d) Abuse can be carried out by anyone – doctors, nurses, carers and even family members.
28. During the day, Mrs X was sat on a chair and has a table put in front of her to stop her getting up and walking about. What type of abuse is this? a) Physical Abuse b) Psychological Abuse c) Emotional Abuse d) Discriminatory Abuse 29. Michael feels very uncomfortable when the carer visiting him always gives him a kiss and holds him tightly when he arrives and leaves his home. What type of abuse is this? a) Emotional Abuse b) Psychological Abuse c) Discriminatory Abuse d) Sexual Abuse 30. Anna has been told that unless she does what the ward staff tell her, the consultant will stop her family from visiting. What type of abuse is this? a) Psychological Abuse b) Discriminatory Abuse c) Institutional Abuse d) Neglect 31. Christine cannot get herself a drink because of her disability. Her carers only give her drinks three times a day so she does not wet herself. What type of abuse is this? a) Physical Abuse b) Institutional Abuse c) Neglect
d) Sexual Abuse
32. Gabriella is 26 year old woman with severe learning disabilities. She is usually happy and outgoing. Her mobility is good, her speech is limited but she is able to be involved if carers take time to use simple language. She lives with her mother, and is being assisted with personal care. Her home care worker has noticed bruising on upper insides of her thighs and arms. The genital area was red and sore. She told the care worker that a male care worker is her friend and he has been cuddling her but she does not like the cuddling because it hurts. What could possibly be the type of abuse Gabriella is experiencing? a) Discriminatory Abuse b) Financial Abuse c) Sexual Abuse d) Institutional Abuse 33. You have noticed that the management wants all residents to be up and about by 8:30 am, so they can be ready for breakfast. Mrs X has refused to get up at 8 am, and she wants to have a bit of a lie in, but one of the carers insisted to wash and dress her, and took her to the dining room. What type of abuse in in place? a) Financial Abuse b) Psychological Abuse c) Sexual Abuse d) Institutional Abuse 34. Patient asking for LAMA, the medical team has concern about the mental capacity of the patient, what decision should be made? a) call the police b) call the security c) let the patient go d) encourage the patient to wait by telling the need for treatment 35. You are in a registered nurse in a community giving health education to a patient and you notice that the student nurse is using his cell phone to text, what should you do? a) Tell the student to leave and emphasize what a disappointment she is b) Report the student to his Instructor after duty
41. A nurse preceptor is working with a new nurse and notes that the new nurse is reluctant to delegate tasks to members of the care team. The nurse preceptor recognizes that this reluctance most likely is due to a) Role modelling behaviours of the preceptor b) The philosophy of the new nurse's school of nursing c) The orientation provided to the new nurse d) Lack of trust in the team members 42. Being a student, observe the insertion of an ICD in the clinical setting. This is a) Formal learning b) Informal learning 43. When you tell a 3rd year student under your care to dispense medication to your patient what will you assess? a) Whether s/he is able to give medicine b) Whether s/he is under your same employment c) His/her competence and skills d) Supervise directly 44. You are mentoring a 3rd year student nurse, the student request that she want to assist a procedure with tissue viability nurse, how can you deal with this situation a) Tell her it is not possible b) Tell her it is possible if you provide direct supervision c) Call to the college and ask whether it is possible for a 3rd student to assist the procedure d) Allow her as this is the part of her learning 45. A registered nurse is a preceptor for a new nursing graduate an is describing critical paths and variance analysis to the new nursing graduate. The registered nurse instructs the new nursing graduate that a variance analysis is performed on all clients: a) Continuously b) daily during hospitalization c) every third day of hospitalization
d) every other day of hospitalization
46. you have assigned a new student to an experienced health care assistant to gain some knowledge in delivering patient care. The student nurse tells you that the HCA has pushed the client back to the chair when she was trying to stand up. What is your action a) As soon as possible after an event has happened (to provide current (up to date) information about the care and condition of the patient or client) b) Every hour c) When there are significant changes to the patient’s condition d) At the end of the shift 47. Who is responsible for the overall assessment of the student’s fitness to practice and documentation of initial, midterm and final assessments in the Ongoing Achievement Record (OAR)? a) The mentor b) The charge nurse/manager c) Any registered nurse on same part of the register 48. What is the minimum length of time that a student must be supervised (directly/indirectly) by the mentor on placement? a) 40% b) 60% c) Not specified, but as much as possible d) Depends on the student capabilities 49. Which student require a SOM? a) All consolidation students who started an NMC approved undergraduate programme which commenced after September 2007. b) Learners undertaking conversion courses c) Students on their final placement in 2 nd^ year d) Nurses/midwifes undertaking Mentorship Preparations e) All midwifery pre-registrations students throughout training f) Nurses/midwives undertaking SOM Preparation.
d) All of the above
55. Which of the following is an important principle of delegation? a) No transfer of authority exists when delegating b) Delegation is the same as work allocation c) Responsibility is not transferred with delegation d) When delegating, you must transfer authority 56. A staff nurse has delegated the ambulating of a new post-op patient to a new staff nurse. Which of the following situations exhibits the final stage in the process of delegation? a) Having the new nurse tell the physician the task has been completed. b) Supervising the performance of the new nurse c) Telling the unit manager, the task has been completed d) Documenting that the task has been completed. 57. Which of the following is a specific benefit to an organization when delegation is carried out effectively? a) Delegates gain new skills facilitating upward mobility b) The client feels more of their needs are met c) Managers devote more time to tasks that cannot be delegated d) The organization benefits by achieving its goals more efficiently 58. The measurement and documentation of vital signs is expected for clients in a long-term facility. Which staff type would it be a priority to delegate these tasks to? a) Practical Nurse b) Registered Nurse c) Nursing assistant d) Volunteer 59. Which task should be assigned to the nursing assistant? a) Placing the client in seclusion
b) Emptying the Foley catheter for the preclamptic client c) Feeding the client with dementia d) Ambulating the client with a fractured hip
60. Independent Advocacy is: a) Providing general advice b) Making decisions for someone c) Care and support work d) Agreeing with everything a person says and doing anything a person asks you to do e) None of the above 61. What is meant by an advocate? a) Someone who develops opportunities for the patient b) Someone who has the same beliefs as the patient c) Someone who does something on behalf of the patient d) Someone who has the same values as the patient. 62. A Nurse demonstrates patient advocacy by becoming involved in which of the following activities? a) Taking a public stand on quality issues and educating the public on” public interest” issues b) Teaching in a school of nursing to help decrease the nursing shortage c) Engaging in nursing research to justify nursing care delivery d) Supporting the status quo when changes are pending 63. In the role of patient advocate, the nurse would do which of the following? a) Emphasize the need for cost-containment measures when making health care decisions b) Override a patient’s decision when the patient refuses the recommended treatment c) Support a patient’s decision, even if it is not the decision desired by the nurse d) Foster patient dependence on health care providers for decision making 64. What is Advocacy according to NHS Trust?
d) Beneficence
69. What is accountability? a) Ethical and moral obligations permeating the nursing profession b) To be answerable to oneself and others for one's own actions.” c) A systematic approach to maintaining and improving the quality of patient care within a health system (NHS). d) The process of applying knowledge and expertise to a clinical situation to develop a solution 70. According to the nursing code of ethics, the nurse’s first allegiance is to the: a) Client and client's family b) Client only c) Healthcare organization d) Physician 71. Which option best illustrates a positive outcome for managed care? a) Involvement in the political process. b) Reshaping current policy. c) Cost-benefit analysis. d) Increase in preventive services 72. While at outside setup what care will you give as a Nurse if you are exposed to a situation? a) Provide care which is at expected level b) Above what is expected c) Ignoring the situation d) Keeping up to professional standards 73. As a nurse, the people in your care must be able to trust you with their health and well being. In order to justify that trust, you must not: a) work with others to protect and promote the health and wellbeing of those in your care b) provide a high standard of practice and care when required c) always act lawfully, whether those laws relate to your professional practice or personal life
d) be personally accountable for actions and omissions in your practice
74. Describe the primary focus of a manager in a knowledge work environment. a) Developing the most effective teams b) Taking risks. c) Routine work d) Understanding the history of the organization. 75. In using social media like Facebook, how will you best adhere to your Code of Conduct as a nurse? (CHOOSE 2 ANSWERS) a) Never have relationship with previous patient b) Never post pictures concerning your practice c) Never tell you are a nurse d) Always rely SOLELY in your FBs privacy setting 76. Which strategy could the nurse use to avoid disparity in health care delivery? a) Recognize the cultural issue related to patient care b) Request more health plan options c) Care for more patients even if quality suffers d) Campaign for fixed nurse patient ratios 77. In an emergency department doctor asked you to do the procedure of cannulation and left the ward. You haven't done it before. What would you do? a) Don't do it as you are not competent or trained for that & write incident report & inform the supervisor b) What is the purpose of clinical audit? c) Do it d) Ask your colleague to do it e) Complain to the supervisor that doctor left you in middle of the procedure 78. NMC defines record keeping as all of the following except: a) Helping to improve advocacy
a) When effectively anonymized. b) When the information is required by law or under a court order. c) In identifiable form, when it is required for a specific purpose, with the individual’s written consent or with support under the Health Service d) In Child Protection proceedings if it is considered that the information required is in the public or child’s interest
84. Adequate record keeping for a medical device should provide evidence of: a) A unique identifier for the device, where appropriate b) A full history, including date of purchase and where appropriate when it was put into use, deployed or installed c) Any specific legal requirements and whether these have been met d) Proper installation and where it was deployed e) Schedule and details of maintenance and repairs f) The end-of-life date, if specified g) All of the above 85. A registered nurse had a very busy day as her patient was sick, got intubated & had other life saving procedures. She documented all the events & by the end of the shift recognized that she had documented in other patient's record. What is best response of the nurse? a) She should continue documenting in the same file as the medical document cannot be corrected b) She should tear the page from the file & start documenting in the correct record c) She should put a straight cut over her documentation & write as wrong, sign it with her NMC code, date & time d) She should write as wrong documentation in a bracket & continue 86. Barbara, a frail lady who lives alone with her cat, was brought in A&E via ambulance after a neighbour found her lying in front of her house. No doctor is available to see her immediately. Barbara told you she is worried about her cat who is alone in the house. How will you best reply to her? a. “You should worry about yourself and not the cat.” b. “Your cat sounded like very dear to you. Can I ask your neighbour to check?” c. “Do you want me to see you cat also? I cannot do that now.” d. “Your cat can look after itself, I am sure.”
87. What are essential competencies for today's nurse manager? a) strategic planning and design b) Self and group awareness c) A vision and goals d) Communication and teamwork 88. A very young nurse has been promoted to nurse manager of an inpatient surgical unit. The nurse is concerned that older nurses may not respect the manager's authority because of the age difference. How can this nurse manager best exercise authority? a) Maintain in an autocratic approach to influence results. b) Understand complex health care environments. c) Use critical thinking to solve problems on the unit d) Give assignments clearly, taking staff expertise into consideration 89. What statement, made in the morning shift report, would help an effective manager develop trust on the nursing unit? a) I know I told you that you could have the weekend off, but I really need you to work.” b) The others work many extra shifts, why can’t you? c) I’m sorry, but I do not have a nurse to spare today to help on your unit. I cannot make a change now, but we should talk further about schedules and needs.” d) I can’t believe you need help with such a simple task. Didn’t you learn that in school?” 90. The nurse has just been promoted to unit manager. Which advice, offered by a senior unit manager, will help this nurse become inspirational and motivational in this new role? a) "If you make a mistake with your staff, admit it, apologize, and correct the error if possible." b) "Don't be too soft on the staff. If they make a mistake, be certain to reprimand them immediately." c) "Give your best nurses extra attention and rewards for their help." d) "Never get into a disagreement with a staff member. 91. The nurse executive of a health care organization wishes to prepare and develop nurse managers for several new units that the organization will open next year. What should be the primary goal for this work?
