Download NURSING PHARMACOLOGY (DRUGS) EXAM 2025 [SCORE A] and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
2025 [SCORE A]
albuterol - correct answers (SABA) short acting beta 2 receptor agonist, used for bronchospasm, acute symptoms of asthma acetaminophen - correct answers centrally acting cox inhibitor; analgesic and antipyretic properties; no antiinflammatory,antirheumatic properties acyclovir - correct answers Antimetabolite for Treating Herpes Simplex Virus & Varicella-Zoster Virus Infections; MOAs: Purine necleoside analog: DNA polymerase inhibitor, suppresses synthesis of viral DNA, resistance. amiodarone - correct answers Class 3 Potassium channel blocker Only approved for life-threatening dysrhythmias. Delays repolarization and extends action potential of heart muscle cells. SE: Profound hypotension." amoxicillin - correct answers Broad-spectrum penicillin active against H. influenzae, E. coli, and N. Gonorrhoeae. It is inactivated by beta-lactamases, so not helpful for Staphylococcus. atropine - correct answers muscinarinic receptor antagonist/anticholinergic drug; used for mydriases (eye exams), to raise HR, lower GI motility, and as antidote to muscarinic poisoning (rx, shrooms)
2025 [SCORE A]
amphotericin B - correct answers broad spectrum antifungal, which is the agent of choice for systemic mycoses, despite being highly toxic. Its uses are limited to treating progressive and potentially fatal infections. Adverse effects include infusion reactions, nephrotoxicity, and hypokalemia. aspirin - correct answers A drug that decrease platelet aggregation and is used to prevent arterial thrombosis, stroke, or MI. Major SEs include risk of major GI bleeding. This drug is an NSAID that works by inhibiting platelet COX, COX-1, and COX-2. beclomethasone - correct answers inhaled corticosteroid used to treat airway inflammation in asthma bethanechol - correct answers muscarinic agnonist, used primarily for urinary retention buproprion - correct answers (DA and NE). Weight loss, seizure, insomnia, headache, serotonin syndrome (see laundry list above), withdrawal, Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome captopril - correct answers ACE inhibitor - shown to have efficacious effects in treating a patient with heart failure. Blocks production of angiotensin II, dilates arterioles and veins, and decreases release of aldosterone. It may show the adverse effects of hypotension, hyperkalemia, or persistant cough, CARDIAC REMODELING carbenicillin - correct answers "Extended spectrum (antipseudomonal penicillins), which has the same spectrum of activity as broad-spectrum penicillins, plus treatment of Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2025 [SCORE A]
clozapine - correct answers atypical antipsychotic; 2nd Gen. Treats negative symptoms. Greater efficacy than 1st gen. Fewer EPS/tardive dyskinesia side effects. SE: Agranulocytosis and Metabolic effects (Weight gain, diabetes, hyperlipidemia) clonidine - correct answers alpha 2 agonist, HTN drug - > vasodilation clavulanic acid - correct answers A penicillinase inhibitor that is combined with a broad spectrum penicillin to increase is bactericidal activity. clopidogrel - correct answers decreases platelet aggregation and is used to prevent arterial thrombosis or stroke. Major SEs include risk of major GI bleeding. This drug is not an NSAID and does not inhibit COX chlorpromazine - correct answers FGA, low potency, treats positive symptoms. SE: Sedation, orthostatic hypotension, anticholinergic effects. NOTE: it may take up to 6 weeks to see effects cromolyn - correct answers mast cell stabilizer, inhaled, for asthma or allergies diphenhydramine - correct answers 1st Generation H1 Competitive Antagonist; antihistamine (benadryl), sedation effects
2025 [SCORE A]
digoxin - correct answers "Medication prescribed for treating heart failure and some dysrhythmias. It is an ionotropic agent with narrow therapeutic index. Increases myocardial contractility and cardiac output. Improves symptoms but not shown to increase life expectancy. Significant cardiotoxicity requires monitoring of drug levels and K+ levels epinephrine - correct answers Mixed Alpha/Beta Adrenergic Receptor Agonists (Nonselective) dabigatrine - correct answers direct thrombin inhibitor, (PO) dextromethorphan - correct answers non opioid antitussive enoxaparin - correct answers low molecular weight heparin; indirect inhibitor, a shorter form of heparin, can be given using a fixed dose with no aPTT monitoring. Inactivates ONLY Xa. subQ only. Can be used at home. exenatide - correct answers incretin mimetic; Activates receptors for GLP-1. Increases insulin secretion; slows GI absorption of glucose and gastric emptying. [-ide, acts similar to tolbutamide] fexofenadine - correct answers 2nd gen antihistamine, H1 competitive antagonist (allegra), lesser sedative effects
2025 [SCORE A]
glyburide - correct answers 2nd generation sulfonylurea; stimulates insulin release in pancreas; Same as Tolbutamide, but more potent. [-ide]; haloperidol - correct answers FGA, high potency; treats positive symptoms. SE: EPS (Acute-dystonia, parkinsons-like, akathesia and Late- Tardive Dyskinesia) and NMS. Immediate effects. Only used in emergent situation, b/c of SE heparin - correct answers "Rapid-acting anticoagulant that enhances activity of antithrombin and inactivates clotting factors. It is used in treating pulmonary embolism, evolving stroke, and prevention of vein thrombosis. Its adverse effects include hemorrhage, drug-induced thrombocytopenia, and hypersensitivity reactions. hydralazine - correct answers a vasodilator that directly dilates arterioles. It may produce SEs including systemic lupus erythematosus-like syndrome, reflex tachycardia, and increased blood volume; BB can prevent tachycardia hydrocodone/acetaminophen - correct answers opioid and non opioid combined for analgesia hydrochlorothiazide - correct answers Thiazide diuretic. Site of action in the nephron is the Distal Convoluted Tubule. First line of treatment for patients without compelling indications. Can cause hypokalemia. Does not work with low GFR. Also used for HF. indinavir - correct answers "Protease inhibitor. Side effects include hyperglycemia/diabetes, fat redistribution, hyperlipidemia, reduced bone density, hepatotoxicity, and increased bleeding in hemophiliacs.
2025 [SCORE A]
insulin glargine - correct answers "Long duration insulin that includes less risk of hypoglycemia than shorter acting insulins. It is produced by making an amino acid switch from natural insulin. NOT mixed with other insulins. imipramine - correct answers (prototype) tricyclic antidepressant and anxiolytic; block reuptake of norepinephrine (NE) and 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT) ipratropium - correct answers Respiratory Muscarinic Acetylcholine Receptor Antagonist (bronchodilator) iodine (131I) - correct answers Radioactive isotope that produces clinical remission of hyperthyroidism by destruction of thyroid gland. ketoconazole - correct answers Alternative antifungal drug for systemic mycoses and is also suitable for superficial mycoses. Fewer SEs and only slightly less effective fungistatic activity. AE: hepatotoxicity, effects on sex hormones, nausea & vomiting, headache, and abdominal pain. levothyroxine - correct answers "Common treatment for all forms of hypothyroidism. It is highly protein bound with a half-life of 7 days. SEs include tachycardia, angina, and tremors. lidocaine - correct answers "Class IB Antidysrhythmic Drug that accelerates repolarization with little or no effect on ECG. Is also used as a local anesthetic. Adverse effects include mental confusion and paresthesias.
2025 [SCORE A]
metoprolol - correct answers "Cardiac-specific beta blocker - shown to have efficacious effects in treating a patient with heart failure. minoxidil - correct answers "Vasodilator with the unusal SE of hypertrichosis; used for treating HTN unresponsive to other drugs. montelukast - correct answers respiratory anti inflammatory; Leukotriene Modifier (PO) morphine sulfate - correct answers analgesic; Strong Mu Opioid Agonist neostigmine - correct answers Cholinesterase Inhibitors [AChE-I] nafcillin - correct answers "Narrow-spectrum penicillinase resistant (antistaphylococcal) penicillin. Active against methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus. nevirapine - correct answers "A Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor (NNRTI) that binds to HIV reverse transcriptase. Adverse effects include rash, erythema multiforme, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, hepatotoxicity, and multiple drug interactions. norepinephrine - correct answers Mixed Alpha 1,2 /Beta 1 Adrenergic Receptor Agonists (Nonselective)
2025 [SCORE A]
nifedipine - correct answers calcium channel blocker niacin - correct answers Vitamin B3; lowers LDL by raising HDL NPH insulin - correct answers intermediate duration insulin. pancuronium - correct answers short acting nicotinic M blocker, used for surgeries, does not depolarize muscles, causes paralysis with consciousness nitroglycerin - correct answers stable angina = reduces oxygen demand; variant angina = increases supply by stopping spasms in coronary vessels; 8 hour break/ day to prevent tolerance; use w/ BB or CCB to prevent reflex tachycardia prazosin - correct answers alpha 1 antagonist, anti- HTN penicillin G - correct answers narrow-spectrum penicillinase sensitive penicillin. It is active against most Gram positive bacteria lacking penicillinases, including Streptococcus sp. phenelzine - correct answers MAOIs: sexual dysfunction, orthostatic hypotention, weight gain, insomnia, HTN crisis (chest pain, headache, confusion, blurred vision, nausea and vomitting, anxiety, SOB, seizure, unresponsive)--due to tyramine foods. So, no cheese, aged meats, yeast, figs, naners, or wine.
2025 [SCORE A]
sitagliptin - correct answers DDP-4 inhibitor, incretin hormone. Stimulates release of insuline; suppresses release of glucagon (decreasing levels of glucose). Basically, metformin + tolbutamide = sitagliptin sodium nitroprusside - correct answers "Fastest acting vasodilatr/antihypertensive agent. It is the drug of choice for HTN emergencies. It is a potent venous and arterial vasodilator with minimal reflex tachycardia. It may produce thiocyanate toxicity after prolonged administration, or cyanide poisoning or excessive hypotension if too rapidly administered spironolactone - correct answers "Aldosterone receptor blocker - shown to have efficacious effects in treating a patient with heart failure. succinylcholine - correct answers Depolarizing Neuromuscular Blocker (i.e. Noncompetitive NicotinicM Receptor Antagonist) tetracycline - correct answers "Static, BROAD. inhibits protein synthesis. SEs: hepatotoxic, renal toxic, bone and teeth (yellowing), suprainfections, GI (take with food), photosensitivity. DDIs: antacids--DO NOT GIVE WITH ANTACIDS; decreases contraceptive activity Pregnancy D" theophylline - correct answers Methylxanthine bronchodilator; narrow therapeutic range, not used anymore mostly trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole - correct answers bactrim
2025 [SCORE A]
tolbutamide - correct answers a sulfonylurea oral hypoglycemic that stimulates release of insulin. Used for insulin deficient patients. trimethoprim - correct answers folic acid inhibitor antimicrobial (static), given with sulfonamide as Bactrim. valproate - correct answers drug of choice for rapid cycling bipolar; increases GABA neurotransmission (inhibitory); targets depressive phase better than manic vancomycin - correct answers Cidal, narrow (G+, MRSA and C. diff. Binds to cell wall. SES--KNOW THESE!--Ototoxicity (ear poisoning), red man's syndrome (allergy marked by flushing, pruritus/skin itch, tachycardia, hypotension; can be avoided by infusing the med slowly); thrombophlebitis. venlaflaxine - correct answers (Effexor, SNRI). Depression or anxiety. Anticholinergic effects, weight loss, seizure, insomnia, headache, GI upset. verapamil - correct answers CCB, class IV antidysrhythmic that reduces myocardial contractility. Adverse effects include hypotension and edema; and, constipation. DDIs include elevated digoxin levels and increased risks for effects if combined with beta blockers. warfarin - correct answers (PO) vitamin K antagonist; indirect inhibitor of coagulation, effects monitored by PT/INR (prothrombin time/international normalized ratio). INR of 2 - 3 appropriate for most patients. Preg Cat X. overdose tx: vit. K
2025 [SCORE A]
cimetidine - correct answers histamine 2 receptor antagonist; peptic ulcer disease omeprazole - correct answers proton pump inhibitor sucralfate - correct answers mucosal protectant for PUD misoprostol - correct answers prostaglandin analog for PUD; mucosal protectant magnesium hydroxide - correct answers osmotic laxative drug psyllium - correct answers bulk forming laxative docusate sodium - correct answers surfactant laxative bisacodyl - correct answers abx for PUD, cell wall disruptor magnesium hydroxide - correct answers antacid ondansetron - correct answers antiemetic; seratonin antagonist
2025 [SCORE A]
prochlorperazine - correct answers antiemetic dopamine antagonist aprepitant - correct answers antiemetic, Substance P/neurokinin antagonists dronabinol - correct answers canabinoid agonist, anti emetic metoclopramide - correct answers prokinetic antiemetic diphenoxylate+atropine - correct answers opioid agonist antidiarrheal, plus atropine to prevent abuse loperamide - correct answers antidiarrheal alosetron - correct answers IBS-D, women only sulfasalazine - correct answers IBS D dexamethasone - correct answers glucocorticoid IBS drug Cyclosporin - correct answers immunosuppressent for IBS Infliximab - correct answers immunomodulator for IBS
2025 [SCORE A]
benzodiazapine - correct answers Potentiate GABA (inhibitory enzyme) activity. Pros: faster onset, target CNS and Physical Symptoms. Cons: higher abuse potential. sulfamethoxazole - correct answers sulfonamide: MOA: anti-metabolite, often given with trimethoprim; SE: hypersensitivity rxns digoxen toxicity - correct answers manifest with... dysrhythmias, bradycardia, muscles weakness, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, and visual disturbances. non potassium-sparing diuretics - correct answers check potassium levels with these HTN drugs interactions between HTN, CHF drugs and digoxen - correct answers ACEI: increase K+, decrease digoxen levels Loop D: decrease K+, increase dig levels CCB: no K+ dependent DDI, increase Dig levels beta blocker or CCB and warfarin - correct answers drugs for initial management of atrial fibrillation verapamil (cardio active CCB), digoxin, propranol (BB) - correct answers drugs that suppress AV nodal conductance quinidine - correct answers only targets the myocardium and His Purkinje system and not the SA or AV nodes
2025 [SCORE A]
aPTT; INR - correct answers __ is for monitoring heparin and __ is for monitoring warfarin protamine sulfate - correct answers antidote to too much heparin vitamin k - correct answers treats warfarin overdose TXA2 - correct answers aspirin blocks platelet aggregation by blocking synthesis of aspirin; warfarin - correct answers arterial thrombi best prevented with ___. venous thrombi prevented with ___. heparin - correct answers preferred anticoagulant during pregnancy (doesn't cross placenta) ciprofloxacin; tetracycline - correct answers these antibiotics should not be taken with dairy, antacids, or minerals
