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Nursing Knowledge and Skills Assessment, Exams of Nursing

A collection of nursing-related questions and scenarios that assess the knowledge and skills of nurses. The questions cover a wide range of topics, including patient care, medication administration, emergency situations, and ethical considerations. The document seems to be designed to test the critical thinking and decision-making abilities of nurses in various healthcare settings. By analyzing the content of this document, one could gain insights into the core competencies and responsibilities of nurses, as well as the challenges they may face in their daily practice. The document could be useful for nursing students, practicing nurses, and healthcare educators in developing and evaluating nursing curricula, training programs, and professional development initiatives.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 08/16/2024

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Passpoint NCLEX Actual Exam Questions | 100%
Correct Answers | Verified 2024 Version
An adolescent is brought to the emergency department (ED) after accidentally taking an overdose of
heroin. The adolescent is semiconscious, unable to respond appropriately to questions, slurs words, and
has constricted pupils; the client's vital signs are blood pressure 60/50 mm Hg, pulse 50 beats/min, and
respirations 8 breaths/min. Naloxone is administered to temporarily reverse the effects of the heroin.
Which finding would first indicate that the naloxone administration has been effective? - ✔✔The client's
respirations improve to 12/min; Decreased respirations and coma are the two most dangerous effects of
heroin overdose, so an increase in respirations after administration of the naloxone demonstrates initial
effectiveness of the medication. Changes in cognition and psychomotor activity will take more time to
become apparent. The client's blood opioid level may not drop to a nontoxic level for a few days.
The third stage of labor ends - ✔✔after the delivery of the placenta; The definition of the third stage of
labor is the delivery of the placenta. The first stage of labor ends with complete cervical dilation and
effacement. The second stage of labor ends with the birth of the neonate. The fourth stage of labor
includes the first 4 hours after birth.
The client with a nasogastric (NG) tube has abdominal distention. What should the nurse do first?
You Selected: - ✔✔Check the function of the suction equipment; When a client with a NG tube exhibits
abdominal distention, the nurse should first check the suction machine. If the suction equipment is
functioning properly, then the nurse should take other steps, such as repositioning the tube or checking
tube patency by irrigating it. If these steps are not effective, then the HCP should be called.
A public health nurse has been asked to teach the importance of hand washing to elderly clients. Which
statement by a client indicates that the teaching has been effective? - ✔✔Friction while washing hands
decreases transmission of bacteria; Soap helps by reducing surface tension of water, but friction is
necessary for the removal of microorganisms. The use of warm water still needs friction. Use of other
products besides soap can reduce infection. Fifteen seconds is an insufficient length of time for hand
washing.
A client develops hepatic encephalopathy 1 week after portal caval shunt surgery. The client's physician
orders neomycin, 4 g by mouth daily in four divided doses. The client's partner asks how neomycin
decreases the serum ammonia concentration. How should the nurse respond? - ✔✔Neomycin decreases
the amount of ammonia-producing bacteria in the GI tract; Neomycin lowers the blood ammonia level
by reducing the quantity of ammonia-producing bacteria in the GI tract. The drug also exerts its
antibacterial activity directly on the ribosomes of susceptible organisms, among them E. coli, by
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Passpoint NCLEX Actual Exam Questions | 100%

Correct Answers | Verified 2024 Version

An adolescent is brought to the emergency department (ED) after accidentally taking an overdose of heroin. The adolescent is semiconscious, unable to respond appropriately to questions, slurs words, and has constricted pupils; the client's vital signs are blood pressure 60/50 mm Hg, pulse 50 beats/min, and respirations 8 breaths/min. Naloxone is administered to temporarily reverse the effects of the heroin. Which finding would first indicate that the naloxone administration has been effective? - ✔✔The client's respirations improve to 12/min; Decreased respirations and coma are the two most dangerous effects of heroin overdose, so an increase in respirations after administration of the naloxone demonstrates initial effectiveness of the medication. Changes in cognition and psychomotor activity will take more time to become apparent. The client's blood opioid level may not drop to a nontoxic level for a few days. The third stage of labor ends - ✔✔after the delivery of the placenta; The definition of the third stage of labor is the delivery of the placenta. The first stage of labor ends with complete cervical dilation and effacement. The second stage of labor ends with the birth of the neonate. The fourth stage of labor includes the first 4 hours after birth. The client with a nasogastric (NG) tube has abdominal distention. What should the nurse do first? You Selected: - ✔✔Check the function of the suction equipment; When a client with a NG tube exhibits abdominal distention, the nurse should first check the suction machine. If the suction equipment is functioning properly, then the nurse should take other steps, such as repositioning the tube or checking tube patency by irrigating it. If these steps are not effective, then the HCP should be called. A public health nurse has been asked to teach the importance of hand washing to elderly clients. Which statement by a client indicates that the teaching has been effective? - ✔✔Friction while washing hands decreases transmission of bacteria; Soap helps by reducing surface tension of water, but friction is necessary for the removal of microorganisms. The use of warm water still needs friction. Use of other products besides soap can reduce infection. Fifteen seconds is an insufficient length of time for hand washing. A client develops hepatic encephalopathy 1 week after portal caval shunt surgery. The client's physician orders neomycin, 4 g by mouth daily in four divided doses. The client's partner asks how neomycin decreases the serum ammonia concentration. How should the nurse respond? - ✔✔Neomycin decreases the amount of ammonia-producing bacteria in the GI tract; Neomycin lowers the blood ammonia level by reducing the quantity of ammonia-producing bacteria in the GI tract. The drug also exerts its antibacterial activity directly on the ribosomes of susceptible organisms, among them E. coli, by

inhibiting protein synthesis via direct action on ribosomal subunits. When present, these bacteria convert urea to ammonia. Neomycin is bactericidal in high concentrations and bacteriostatic in low concentrations. Thus, it doesn't trap or bind with ammonia in the GI tract. A hospital safety officer is evaluating nurses' responses to potential safety hazards. Which employee actions are appropriate for the situation? Select all that apply. - ✔✔1. taking small steps with feet shoulder length apart when walking on wet surfaces

  1. removing clients from the area where a fire is reported
  2. using tongs to place a dislodged radioactive device in a lead container A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presents with respiratory acidosis and hypoxemia. The client tells the nurse that they don't want to be placed on a ventilator. What action should the nurse take? - ✔✔Notify the physician immediately to have the physician determine client competency; Three requirements are necessary for informed decision-making: the decision must be given voluntarily; the client making the decision must have the capacity and competence to understand; and the client must be given adequate information to make the decision. In light of the client's respiratory acidosis and hypoxemia, the client might not be competent to make this decision. The physician should be notified immediately so the physician can determine client competency. The physician, not the nurse, is responsible for discussing the implications of a DNR order with the client. The Patient's Bill of Rights entitles the client to make decisions about the care plan, including the right to refuse recommended treatment. The client's family may oppose the client's decision. Consulting the palliative care group isn't appropriate at this time and must be initiated by a physician order. A client in the emergency department reported vomiting and diarrhea for the previous 24 hours. The client's blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, respiration is 20 breaths per minute, heart rate is 92 beats per minute, and temperature is 37.5° C (99.5° F). Which intervention will the nurse perform first? - ✔✔Assess for dehydration; The priority for this client is assessing the problem. Then the nurse should treat the fluid volume deficit, then the temperature. This client has hypotension, and the nurse would raise the legs, not the head, of the bed first to improve perfusion to the brain, as it is the least restrictive intervention. A nurse is caring for a client who has returned to their room after a carotid endarterectomy. Which action should the nurse take first? - ✔✔Ask the client if they have trouble breathing; The nurse should first assess the client's breathing. A complication of a carotid endarterectomy is an incisional hematoma, which could compress the trachea causing breathing difficulty for the client. Although the other measures are important actions, they aren't the nurse's top priority.

The nurse who cared for a client in the home environment for several months learns that the client has died. What should the nurse do to support the family at this time? - ✔✔Attend the funeral; It is appropriate for the nurse who took care of a client for a prolonged period to attend the funeral. It also is appropriate for the nurse to make a follow-up personal or phone call to the client's family after the funeral or memorial service to offer both concern and care for the family's well-being. Follow-up visits are important to give support to the family. Flowers may not be desired by the family. The nurse needs to do more than just remove the client's name from the care list. The nurse conducts the health assessment of a client who is a primigravida in the prenatal clinic. Which presumptive signs of pregnancy should the nurse expect to assess? - ✔✔amenorrhea and quickening; Presumptive signs, such as amenorrhea and quickening, are mostly subjective and may be indicative of other conditions or illnesses. Probable signs are objective, but nonconclusive indicators — for example, Chadwick's sign, Hegar's sign, a positive pregnancy test, uterine enlargement, and Braxton Hicks contractions. Positive signs and objective indicators, such as fetal outline on ultrasound confirm pregnancy. Which client's care may a registered nurse (RN) safely delegate to the nursing assistant? - ✔✔a client requiring assistance ambulating, who was admitted with a history of seizures; The RN may safely delegate assistance ambulating for the client with a history of seizures to a nursing assistant. The RN should provide direct care to the client who requires continuous pulse oximetry monitoring because pulse oximetry interpretation requires assessment skills. Care of the clients requiring suctioning and patient-controlled analgesia can be safely delegated to a licensed practical nurse. When planning care for a client with schizophrenia, who lacks motivation to shower and dress, which outcome should the nurse expect the client to achieve by the end of 4 days? - ✔✔Perform showering and dressing for herself; By the end of 4 days, the client should be able to perform showering and dressing for herself. The client with schizophrenia commonly appears to be apathetic and lack initiative. Therefore, demonstrating the ability to complete the tasks indicates improvement. Although the client may be able to recognize, verbalize, or explain the need to shower and dress herself, she may be unable to do so because of the ambivalence associated with schizophrenia that impedes the client's ability to initiate and complete self-care. Therefore, evidence of improvement would be lacking. Which health education topic is the priority when teaching parents ways to prevent urinary tract infections (UTIs) in their children? - ✔✔Teach parents to promote adequate fluid intake; Urinary stasis is a major cause of UTIs, and can be partially prevented by increasing fluid intake. Baths and hand hygiene are less significant factors in the development of UTIs. Urinary tract infections are increased in uncircumcised male infants under 1 year of age, but unaffected thereafter.

A client has been unable to void since having abdominal surgery 7 hours ago. What should the nurse do first? - ✔✔Assist the client up to the toilet to attempt to void; Urinary retention is common following abdominal surgery. The nurse should first assist the client to an anatomically comfortable position to void prior to resorting to other strategies such as cauterization. If the client is unable to void, the nurse can use a bladder scanner to determine the volume of retained urine, and then, if necessary, use an intermittent urinary catheter. While increasing fluid intake is important, it will not help the client void now. An 8-year-old has a body mass index (BMI) for age at the 90th percentile but has no other risk factors. What should the nurse do? - ✔✔Refer the family to a dietician; Children aged 2 to 20 years with a BMI- for-age at the 90th percentile are considered overweight. If no other risk factors are present, the family should receive dietary counseling to slow the child's weight gain until an appropriate height for weight is attained. Without intervention, the child may become obese. An HCP who specializes in pediatric weight loss should be considered when the child is obese and has complicating factors. Commercial diet programs alone do not include the necessary monitoring for children, thus are rarely appropriate. The health care provider prescribes raloxifene hydrochloride for a 60-year-old woman. The drug is effective if the client does not develop: - ✔✔Osteoporosis; Raloxifene hydrochloride, an estrogen receptor modulator, increases bone mineral density without stimulating the endometrium. The drug is useful in preventing osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. This drug is contraindicated for women who smoke cigarettes or who have a history of venous thrombosis. Raloxifene does not prevent hot flashes or hyperglycemia. One of its adverse effects is increased headaches. A 12-year-old client needs lifesaving emergency surgery, but the relatives live an hour away from the hospital and cannot sign the consent form. What is the nurse's best response? - ✔✔Call the family for a consent over the telephone, and have another nurse listen as a witness; While laws in states and provinces may vary, generally, when the client cannot sign the operative consent and it is a true life- saving emergency, consent may be obtained over the telephone from the client's next-of-kin or guardian. The surgeon must obtain the telephone consent, but if it is a true life-saving emergency the surgeon often is already in surgery, so the nurse makes the telephone call and another nurse witnesses the call. Some institutions have a special consent form for emergency surgery. Consent can be waived in situations in which no family is available; however, if the family can be reached by telephone before surgery, verbal consent is legally required. Which of the following situations does the nurse recognize as having the greatest risk for the fetus? - ✔✔a fundal height of 27 cm at 32 weeks gestation; Optimal fetal growth and development during pregnancy are assessed with fundal height measurement. Fundal height, measured in centimeters, should equal gestational weeks throughout the pregnancy (e.g., fundal height of 27 cm should occur at 27 weeks gestation). A fundal height of 27 cm at 32 weeks gestation is a very ominous finding that

misconceptions regarding pain and pain medication administration include a concern that taking pain medication regularly will lead to addiction. However, this misconception overstates the risk of addiction and greatly understates the risk of immobility due to poor pain control, including atelectasis, decubitus formation, and delayed healing. The nurse should assist the client to understand the importance of adequate pain medication to support and promote client mobilization following surgery and client/family satisfaction with care. There is a potential for dependence and addiction with all narcotic drugs, although this is not likely during the postoperative period. The nurse reviews a client's lab values and implements which intervention to help with maintenance of skin integrity? - ✔✔Begin infusion of intravenous fluids; A client with an increased sodium level potentially has dehydration, which can impact skin integrity as a risk factor. Beginning rehydration through the infusion of intravenous fluids will help with restoring fluid volume, and preventing dry skin. The WBC count is still within normal limits, so monitoring the temperature is not indicated. While the potassium level is decreased and the client may need cardiac monitoring, this does not have an effect on skin integrity. Nutrition does have an effect, but there is no indication of the client being malnourished with a glucose level of 111 mg/dL. A laboring client provides the nurse with the birth plan that she wishes to follow. The birth plan expresses that the client wishes for her partner to do the coaching through her contractions. What is the best way for the nurse to meet this family's needs during labor and birth? - ✔✔Enter the birthing room as few times as possible to do the required assessments; The birth plan is a vehicle for communicating to the healthcare providers the family's desires regarding the birth attendant; birth setting; support person; and activities during labor, birth, and the postpartum period. The nurse should collaborate with the couple to respect their plans and privacy while achieving the goals of safe childbirth. It is incorrect to contact the physician; the plan should be discussed directly with the couple to ensure understanding of their desires. It is critical that the nurse does enter the room to perform the required assessments, and not only when requested, to ensure safety of both mother and baby. After teaching the client about lochia, the nurse determines that the client understands the instructions when she says that on the 10th or 11th postpartum day, the lochia should be which color? - ✔✔White; About the 10th day after childbirth, the discharge becomes thin, scanty, and almost without color (white). At this time, it is called lochia alba. The vaginal discharge from approximately day 4 through day 9 becomes more serous and watery, pink to pinkish or brown in color. At this time, it is called lochia serosa. The vaginal discharge that normally occurs for 2 to 3 days after childbirth, lochia rubra, contains mostly blood and is dark red in color. A brown vaginal discharge is commonly associated with lochia serosa, the vaginal discharge from approximately day 4 through day 9. The emergency room nurse is caring for a client who fell, breaking the tibia. The nurse determines that the client understands the risk of compartment syndrome when knowing to report which early symptom

following treatment? - ✔✔paresthesia; Compartment syndrome is the compression of the nerves, blood vessels, and muscle inside a closed space. Paresthesia is the earliest sign of compartment syndrome. Pain, heat, and swelling are also signs but occur after paresthesia. Skin pallor is not a sign of compartment syndrome. What is the most common cause of medication errors among noninstitutionalized elderly clients? - ✔✔deficient knowledge; Deficient knowledge is the most common cause of medication errors among noninstitutionalized elderly clients. Poor vision, dementia, and confusion can contribute to medication errors in this group, but they're less common causes of medication errors. The obstetrical triage nurse assesses a client with a term pregnancy. There has not been any change in the cervix for the past 2 hours despite irregular contractions. When discharging the client to her home, the nurse should tell the client to return to the hospital when which conditions occur? Select all that apply. - ✔✔1. Contractions become more intense and closer together.

  1. She notices vaginal bleeding.
  2. She thinks the membranes have ruptured.
  3. She notices an absence of fetal movement.
  4. She feels the urge to push; Because there have been no cervical changes, the client is not in labor. The client should understand to return to the hospital if the contractions become more intense and regular, if she has vaginal bleeding, if she thinks her membranes rupture, if the baby is not moving, or if she has an urge to push. Three contractions an hour would be too infrequent to indicate active labor. Which statement by the parent of an 18-month-old child indicates to the nurse that the child needs laboratory testing for lead levels? - ✔✔"My child does not always wash after playing in the dirt;" Eating with dirty hands, especially after playing outside, can cause lead poisoning because lead is often present in soil surrounding homes. Also, children who eat lead-containing paint chips commonly develop lead poisoning. Milk is a major source of calcium, and diets high in calcium help prevent lead poisoning. Temper tantrums are characteristic of 18-month-old children as they try to assert themselves. Determining whether the child is smaller than other children the same age requires measuring height and weight and plotting them on growth charts. In addition, inadequate growth could be a result of numerous causes, such as genetics, chronic illness, or chronic drug use (e.g., prednisone). A client with viral hepatitis A is being treated in an acute care facility. Because the client requires enteric precautions, the nurse should - ✔✔wash their hands after touching the client; To maintain enteric precautions, the nurse must wash their hands after touching the client or potentially contaminated articles and before caring for another client. A private room is warranted only if the client has poor hygiene — for instance, if the client is unlikely to wash the hands after touching infective material or is

nurse should give the client milk and a graham cracker with peanut butter or a glass of orange juice after confirming the low glucose level. It isn't necessary to notify the physician or to obtain a serum glucose level at this time. A nurse is planning staffing for a nursing unit in which the primary need of the clients is learning how to manage their health problems. Which combination is the ideal mix of staff for this unit? - ✔✔three registered nurses (RNs); The ideal staffing for a nursing unit focused on client teaching and learning is to have three registered nurses. It is within the scope of practice for the RN to assess, plan, implement, coordinate, and evaluate client learning. It is not within the scope of practice for LPNs/VNs and UAP to provide client teaching. For which medication(s) will the nurse ask another nurse to witness the disposal of a partial dose in the phamaceutical waste container? Select all that apply. - ✔✔alprazolam hydrocodone meperidine; Federal law requires two nurses to witness and document the waste of all controlled subsatnces in order to prevent diversion and misuse of these substances. Alprazolam, hydrocodone, and meperidine are controlled substances. These medications require the nurse to have another nurse witness the waste in a pharmaceutical waste container. Losartan and amlodipine are not controlled substances and do not require special procedures for the waste of a partial dose. An Asian-American client with hyperglycemia is admitted to the healthcare facility. After the client is stable, the nurse discovers that the client has not had the prescribed medicines. The client believes that eating saffron will keep blood glucose level under control. The nurse determines that saffron is not known to influence blood glucose levels. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? - ✔✔"Why don't you take the medicines, too, and benefit from both?" Although the nurse may disagree with the client's beliefs concerning the cause of health or illness, respect for these beliefs helps the client to achieve healthcare goals. Asking the client to consider the benefits of medicine is appropriate, because the nurse, without disrespecting the client's beliefs, persuades the client to have medicines also. The nurse saying that saffron does not have any effect on blood glucose level is inappropriate because it disregards the client's beliefs. The nurse's agreeing with the client may provide encouragement and indicate low faith in the present treatment. It is inappropriate to call the doctor and complain about the client. The nurse is preparing to administer medications to the client. Which identifiers will the nurse use? Select all that apply. - ✔✔wristband birthdate name

The nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client through a nasogastric (NG) tube. What interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care? Select all that apply. - ✔✔1. Flush NG tube in between medications.

  1. Position the client in a Fowler's position during feedings; Medications should be separated with 15 mL of NS or water in between. High Fowler's position prevents aspiration. Time-released medications should never be crushed. Medications should be given in separate syringes and residual contents should be returned. When caring for an oncology client receiving cisplatin and experiencing nausea and mouth sores, which nursing interventions are best to improve the client's diet? Select all that apply. - ✔✔1. Schedule high- nutrient shakes between meals.
  2. Offer small, frequent, light meals 5-6 times daily.
  3. Administer oral anesthetic 15 minutes prior to meals.
  4. Offer cool drinks and foods as tolerated; Optimal nutrition includes a balance of protein, carbohydrate, and only a small amount of fat. A client on cisplantin commonly has additional side effects of nausea and oral sores. Changes in the plan of care include high-nutrient shakes to compensate for low oral intake. Eating smaller, light meals commonly cooler in temperature as opposed to hot meals are better tolerated. Offering an oral anesthetic prior to meals decreases discomfort in the eating process. Large meals that are spicy and high in fat are discouraged. An older adult is being discharged following a repair of an inguinal hernia. The client is independent and lives alone, but the client's family lives 60 miles from the client's house. When at home, the client is to cleanse and inspect the incision for signs of infection. The client and family are able to read and understand written instructions. When giving discharge instructions, what should the nurse do? Select all that apply. - ✔✔1. Explain the instructions to the client.
  5. Ask the client to demonstrate the procedure.
  6. Provide written instructions for the client. The nurse should explain and demonstrate the discharge instructions and then ask the client to give a return demonstration. The Joint Commission and Health Canada require that discharge instructions be written for the postoperative client. Clients need to be given discharge instructions orally and in written form because of stress, medications, and the volume of material to be learned. Explaining all the instructions to family members and giving them a link to a video is important but does not replace the need for written instructions. Since the family does not live nearby, the nurse must be certain the client can manage the instructions alone. When developing a nutritional plan for a child who needs to increase protein intake, the nurse should suggest which foods? Select all that apply. - ✔✔cooked dry beans

woman from the possible abuser. The client and the fetus are assessed for safety. The fetal heart rate should be monitored, and the nurse should assess for bleeding and contractions. The nurse should ask the woman if she feels safe going home with her partner, whether she has an escape plan if she feels in danger, and if she has an immediate need for a place of safety. A list of community resources should be provided to the client whether they are needed at this time or for the future. The nurse is discharging a newborn to home. Which discharge instructions will the nurse give to the newborn's parents? Select all that apply. - ✔✔1. "Sponge bathe as needed until the umbilical cord comes off."

  1. "Ensure that feedings occur every 3 to 4 hours."
  2. "Place newborn in a rear-facing car seat." A nurse is monitoring a client following the administration of sotalol. Which finding would be of greatest concern to the nurse? - ✔✔bilateral inspiratory wheezing upon auscultation; Nonselective beta-blocking drugs may cause bradycardia, hypotension, heart block, heart failure, bronchoconstriction, and/or increased airway resistance. Any preexisting respiratory condition such as asthma might be worsened by the concurrent use of these medications. A weight gain of more than 3 lbs (1.36 kg) in 2 days or 5 lbs (2.26 kg) in a week should be reported. To prevent the spread of infection in the home healthcare environment, the nurse should follow appropriate technique by - ✔✔placing equipment back on a liner when setting it down in the client's home; To prevent the spread of infection, nurses should use appropriate technique when handling their equipment bags by performing hand hygiene before reaching into the bag for supplies, cleaning any equipment removed from the bag before returning it to the bag, and placing the bag on a liner when setting it down in the client's home. Donning gloves, a mask, or gown when greeting the client or family members is not necessary and will interfere with the greeting process. An extremely agitated client is brought to the psychiatric unit by the client's partner. The partner reports that the client has been hospitalized several times for treatment of bipolar disorder and has spent thousands of dollars in the past week. The psychiatrist admits the client to the unit for exacerbation of the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Which approach by the nurse promotes a therapeutic relationship with this client? - ✔✔maintaining a firm but nonthreatening manner; The nurse must maintain a firm but nonthreatening approach to avoid provoking anger in this agitated client. Because the client is having difficulty controlling behavior, confrontation would be pointless. Confrontation would also jeopardize rapport and detract from a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. The client's agitated state makes successful communication difficult. Instead of using reflection and open-ended questions to try to develop a therapeutic relationship, the nurse should provide emotional support and maintain a calm environment. Reflective communication and open-ended questions may anger the client, who has been

hospitalized before and is accustomed to "therapeutic talk." This client is too agitated to gain insight into behavior. A client has had a pulmonary artery catheter inserted. In performing hemodynamic monitoring with the catheter, the nurse will wedge the catheter to gain information about: - ✔✔left end-diastolic pressure; When wedged, the catheter is "pointing" indirectly at the left end-diastolic pressure. The pulmonary artery wedge pressure is measured when the tip of the catheter is slowing inflated and allowed to wedge into a branch of the pulmonary artery. Once the balloon is wedged, the catheter reads the pressure in front of the balloon. During diastole, the mitral valve is open, reflecting left ventricular end diastolic pressure. Cardiac output is the amount of blood ejected by the heart in 1 minute and is determined through thermodilution and not wedge pressure. Cardiac index is calculated by dividing the client's cardiac output by the client's body surface area, and is considered a more accurate reflection of the individual client's cardiac output. Right atrial blood pressure is not measured with the pulmonary artery catheter. The nurse instructs a group of parents about emergency treatment for accidental poisoning and injury. The nurse would need to do further teaching if a participant makes which statement? - ✔✔"I should call the poison control center if there are any symptoms;" Many poisons require immediate attention but do not cause immediate symptoms. Therefore, parents who believe that a child has ingested or otherwise been exposed to a poisonous substance should immediately call the Poison Control Center. Eyes should be flushed for 15 to 20 minutes with saline or room temperature tap water. Emesis should be saved for analysis, especially if the type or amount of poison ingested is not clear. Vomiting caustic substances may lead to esophageal or airway damage; therefore, vomiting should only be induced if directed by the Poison Control Center. A nurse is instructing a client who had abdominal surgery that day to do deep-breathing exercises. In which order from first to last should the nurse teach the client to perform diaphragmatic breathing and coughing? All options must be used. - ✔✔1. Splint the incisional site.

  1. Inhale through the nose.
  2. Exhale through pursed lips.
  3. Cough deeply from the lungs; The client must first splint the incision to avoid increased intolerable pain or he or she may not cooperate with the pulmonary ventilation. The next step is to inhale oxygen to expand the alveoli for a few seconds and then exhale carbon dioxide in successive steps 5 to 10 times. The client should try to cough on the end of the exhalation to remove retained secretions from the larger airways. Which moral principle is a nurse applying when the nurse decides what is best for a client and acting without consulting the individual? - ✔✔paternalism; Nurses and other healthcare workers employ

describes decorticate posturing, which indicates damage to corticospinal tracts and cerebral hemispheres. A client with decreased urine output refractory to fluid challenges is evaluated for renal failure. Which condition may cause the intrinsic (intrarenal) form of acute renal failure? - ✔✔nephrotoxic injury secondary to use of contrast media; Intrinsic renal failure results from damage to the kidney, such as from nephrotoxic injury caused by contrast media, antibiotics, corticosteroids, or bacterial toxins. Poor perfusion to the kidneys may result in prerenal failure. Damage to the epithelial cells of the renal tubules results from nephrotoxic injury, not damage to the adrenal cortex. Obstruction of the urinary collecting system may cause postrenal failure. A nurse is caring for a 16-year-old girl who isn't sexually active. The girl asks if she needs a Papanicolaou (Pap) test. How should the nurse respond? - ✔✔"No, it isn't necessary because you aren't sexually active." A client hospitalized for preterm labor tells the nurse that she's having occasional contractions. Which nursing intervention would be the most appropriate? - ✔✔Encourage the client to empty her bladder, give I.V. fluids, and encourage oral fluids. A nurse is assessing a client who is being abused. The nurse should assess the client for which characteristic(s)? Select all that apply. - ✔✔self-blame alcohol abuse suicidal thoughts guilt A nurse can auscultate for heart sounds more easily if the client is - ✔✔leaning forward; The nurse can best auscultate for heart sounds by asking the client to lean forward and exhale forcefully. This position enables the nurse to listen for heart sounds without the sound of expiration interfering. Using the supine position to visually inspect the precordium allows the nurse to observe the chest wall for movement, pulsations, and exaggerated lifts or strong outward thrusts over the chest during systole A nurse is teaching a client about metformin therapy. The nurse warns the client that metformin commonly causes hypoglycemia when combined with which other medication? - ✔✔ACE inhibitors

A client who is taking aspirin caplets develops prolonged bleeding from a superficial skin injury on the forearm. The nurse should tell the client to do which action first? - ✔✔Apply an icepack for 20 min A registered nurse is mentoring a new graduate nurse. Which action by the new graduate demonstrates a need for further teaching? - ✔✔turns the defibrillator to synchronize before defibrillating a client with ventricular fibrillation; The synchronizer switch should be turned "off" when defibrillating. All other answers are correct and do not require further teaching. A hospital is changing the format for documentation in an attempt to decrease the time the nurses are spending on charting. The new type of charting will require that nurses document the significant findings as a narrative note in a shorthand method using well-defined standards of practice. Which best defines this type of charting? - ✔✔Charting by exeption A client is admitted with a suspected abruptio placentae. The nurse should assess the client for which signs and symptoms? Select all that apply. - ✔✔bleeding that is concealed or apparent, abdominal rigidity, painful abdomen A client with diabetic ketoacidosis was admitted to the intensive care unit 4 hours ago and has these laboratory results: blood glucose level 450 mg/dl, serum potassium level 2.5 mEq/L (2.5 mmol/L), serum sodium level 140 mEq/L 140 mmol/L), and urine specific gravity 1.025. The client has two I.V. lines in place with normal saline solution infusing through both. Over the past 4 hours, the client's total urine output has been 50 ml. Which physician order should the nurse question? - ✔✔Change the second I.V. solution to dextrose 5% in water; The nurse should question the physician's order to change the second I.V. solution to dextrose 5% in water. The client should receive normal saline solution through the second I.V. site until the client's blood glucose level reaches 250 mg/dl. The client should receive a fluid bolus of 500 ml of normal saline solution. The client's urine output is low and their specific gravity is high, which reveals dehydration. The nurse should expect to hold the insulin infusion for 30 minutes until the potassium replacement has been initiated. Insulin administration causes potassium to enter the cells, which further lowers the serum potassium level. Further lowering the serum potassium level places the client at risk for life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse is assigning a room for a client admitted with hepatitis A. Which diagnosis would be an appropriate roommate for this client? - ✔✔Congestive heart failure

An adult with diabetes insipidus is hospitalized for care. Which finding should the nurse report to the physician? - ✔✔Urine specific gravity of 1.001; Diabetes insipidus is caused by a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone, which results in excretion of a large volume of dilute urine. Therefore, a urine specific gravity of less than 1.005 should be reported. Urine output should be 30 to 50 ml/hour; thus, 350 ml is a normal urinary output over 8 hours. The potassium level is normal. Weight loss, not weight gain, should be monitored as a sign of dehydration. A client with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is being treated with prednisone and rituximab. The nurse prioritizes what aspect of care planning? - ✔✔infection control measures; Metabolic screening of an infant revealed a high phenylketonuria (PKU) level. Which statement the infant's mother indicates understanding of the disease and its management? Select all that apply. - ✔✔"My baby cannot have milk-based formulas." "We have to follow a strict low-phenylalanine diet." "A dietitian can help me plan a diet that keeps a safe phenylalanine level but lets my baby grow." The nurse is assessing a client's data with primary glomerular disease. Which assessment data will the nurse expect to verify progression to nephrotic syndrome? Select all that apply. - ✔✔proteinuria diffuse edema hypoalbuminemia A client is to start on enteral tube feedings. What intervention will the nurse implement to best promote the client's ability to adequately digest the feeding and reduce residual gastric volumes? - ✔✔Begin with a slow, continuous rate of feeding and adjust based on client repsonse; The client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has a chronic cough. The nurse should further assess the client for which other possible problem? - ✔✔aspiration of gastric contents. A nurse completing management rotation in the intensive care unit (ICU) is working with an experienced ICU nurse. One client's work supervisor calls to "check up" on the client. The nurse offers to transfer the call to the client's family members. The experienced ICU nurse recognizes this action as - ✔✔protection of the client's privacy.

The nurse is caring for a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of dehydration. The client's serum potassium is 5.2 mmol/L this morning and the healthcare provider orders the primary I.V. fluid as D5 1/2 NSS with 20 mEq/KCL (mmol/L). What will the nurse do? Select all that apply. - ✔✔Hold the I.V. fluid; Clarify the order with the healthcare provider; Review the lab results. A client with jaundice has poor appetite, nausea, and two episodes of emesis in the past 2 hours. The client reports having spasms in the stomach area. The client does not have pruritus. The nurse should develop a care plan for which symptom first? - ✔✔nausea A terminally ill client in hospice care is experiencing nausea and vomiting because of a partial bowel obstruction. To respect the client's wishes for palliative care, what can the nurse recommend that the client use? - ✔✔a clear liquid diet; The use of diet modification is a conservative approach to treat the terminally ill or hospice clients who have nausea and vomiting related to bowel obstruction. Osmotic laxatives would be harder for the client to tolerate. An NG tube is more aggressive and invasive. IV antiemetics are also invasive. The hospice philosophy involves comfort and palliative care for the terminally ill.