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NURSING 7350 PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY ACROSS THE LIFESPAN EXAM Q & A 2024NURSING 7350 PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY ACROSS THE LIFESPAN EXAM Q & A 2024
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that does not interact significantly with warfarin. It is therefore safer to use in patients on warfarin therapy to avoid potential bleeding risks.
Rationale: Atomoxetine is a non-stimulant medication approved for the treatment of ADHD. It works by inhibiting norepinephrine reuptake and is often considered when stimulant medications have not resulted in satisfactory symptom control.
b) Constipation c) Orthostatic hypotension d) Tachycardia Answer: d) Tachycardia Rationale: TCAs can cause dose-dependent cardiac toxicity, including tachycardia, due to their anticholinergic and alpha-1 blocking effects. Aggressive assessment and intervention are necessary to prevent severe cardiac complications.
medical attention? a) Parkinsonism b) Dystonia c) Tardive dyskinesia d) Akathisia Answer: c) Tardive dyskinesia Rationale: Tardive dyskinesia is a persistent movement disorder that can develop after prolonged treatment with antipsychotic medications. Involuntary lip smacking and grimacing are common signs of tardive dyskinesia, necessitating awareness and reporting to prevent irreversible motor abnormalities.
Rationale: Benzodiazepines should be gradually tapered to avoid withdrawal symptoms, rebound anxiety, and potential withdrawal seizures. Abrupt discontinuation can be associated with severe withdrawal symptoms, including increased anxiety and potential medical complications. B: A 60-year-old patient presents with symptoms of depression and anxiety. Which of the following classes of medications is most appropriate for this patient? a) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) b) Stimulants c) Antipsychotics d) Benzodiazepines Answer: a) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) Rationale: SSRIs are commonly used to treat depression and anxiety in older adults due to their favorable side effect profile and lower risk of adverse events compared to other classes of medications. A 25-year-old female patient is diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which of the following medications is a first-line treatment for ADHD in adults? a) Bupropion b) Methylphenidate
c) Quetiapine d) Lithium Answer: b) Methylphenidate Rationale: Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant and is considered a first-line treatment for ADHD in adults due to its efficacy in managing symptoms of inattention and hyperactivity. A 70-year-old male patient with schizophrenia is prescribed an atypical antipsychotic medication. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for in this patient? a) Hypertensive crisis b) Extrapyramidal symptoms c) Sedation d) Hepatotoxicity Answer: b) Extrapyramidal symptoms Rationale: Atypical antipsychotics are associated with a lower risk of extrapyramidal symptoms compared to typical antipsychotics; however, the nurse should monitor for these adverse effects, especially in older adult patients. A 40-year-old pregnant patient seeks treatment for moderate to severe depression. Which of the following antidepressants is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy? a) Paroxetine b) Venlafaxine c) Fluoxetine d) Sertraline
insomnia due to its shorter half-life and reduced risk of tolerance and dependence compared to benzodiazepines. A 70-year-old patient with chronic pain is prescribed an opioid medication. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse prioritize monitoring for in this patient? a) Hypotension b) Respiratory depression c) Hyperglycemia d) Visual disturbances Answer: b) Respiratory depression Rationale: Respiratory depression is a potentially life- threatening adverse effect of opioid medications, especially in older adult patients, and should be closely monitored by the healthcare team. A 30-year-old patient with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is prescribed a selective serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) for the management of symptoms. Which of the following SNRIs is commonly used in the treatment of PTSD? a) Duloxetine b) Desvenlafaxine c) Venlafaxine d) Milnacipran Answer: c) Venlafaxine Rationale: Venlafaxine is often used in the treatment of PTSD due to its dual mechanism of action in increasing serotonin and norepinephrine levels, which may help alleviate symptoms of the disorder.
A 65-year-old patient with dementia-related psychosis is prescribed a medication to manage hallucinations and delusions. Which of the following atypical antipsychotic medications is approved for this indication in older adults? a) Risperidone b) Olanzapine c) Aripiprazole d) Quetiapine Answer: a) Risperidone Rationale: Risperidone is approved for the treatment of dementia-related psychosis in older adults, and its use should be carefully monitored due to an increased risk of cerebrovascular adverse events. A 20-year-old patient with a history of alcohol use disorder is prescribed a medication to support abstinence and prevent relapse. Which of the following medications is a partial opioid agonist commonly used for this purpose? a) Naltrexone b) Disulfiram c) Acamprosate d) Buprenorphine Answer: d) Buprenorphine Rationale: Buprenorphine is a partial opioid agonist that can help reduce cravings and withdrawal symptoms in individuals with alcohol use disorder, supporting their efforts to maintain abstinence. A 45-year-old patient is diagnosed with generalized anxiety
emphasize to the patient while on this medication? a) Limiting intake of foods rich in tyramine b) Avoiding foods high in vitamin K c) Restricting sodium intake d) Avoiding foods containing histamine Answer: a) Limiting intake of foods rich in tyramine Rationale: MAOIs can interact with tyramine-containing foods and beverages, potentially leading to hypertensive crisis; therefore, patients should be educated about dietary restrictions to prevent adverse events. A 65-year-old patient with Parkinson's disease is prescribed a medication to manage motor symptoms. Which of the following medications is a dopamine agonist commonly used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease? a) Levodopa-carbidopa b) Pramipexole c) Amantadine d) Selegiline Answer: b) Pramipexole Rationale: Pramipexole is a dopamine agonist that can help manage motor symptoms of Parkinson's disease by stimulating dopamine receptors in the brain. A 30-year-old patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium for mood stabilization. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances should the nurse monitor for in this patient while on lithium therapy? a) Hyponatremia b) Hypokalemia
c) Hypercalcemia d) Hypernatremia Answer: a) Hyponatremia Rationale: Lithium therapy can lead to the development of hyponatremia, emphasizing the importance of regular monitoring of sodium levels to prevent potential complications. C:
adolescents with ADHD. However, these effects are usually mild and transient, and can be minimized by timing the medication administration to avoid interfering with meals, providing high-calorie snacks before or after taking the medication, and monitoring the growth parameters regularly. Stopping or skipping the medication can compromise the efficacy and consistency of treatment, and switching to a non-stimulant medication may not be as effective or well-tolerated.
difference between an effective dose and a toxic dose. Therefore, it is essential to monitor the blood lithium level regularly (usually every 1-3 months) to ensure that it stays within the target range of 0.6-1.2 mEq/L. Symptoms of lithium toxicity include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, confusion, drowsiness, slurred speech, muscle weakness, tremor, ataxia, seizures, coma, and death.