Neuroscience Principles & Concepts Q & A w/ Rationales, Exams of Nursing

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NURSING 7340

Neuroscience Principles

& Concepts

Q & A w/ Rationales

1. Which of the following structures is responsible for regulating and coordinating body movement? a. Amygdala b. Hypothalamus c. Basal ganglia d. Parietal lobe Answer: c. Basal ganglia Rationale: The basal ganglia is a group of structures located deep within the cerebral hemispheres that are responsible for facilitating smooth voluntary movements and inhibiting undesired movements.
2. Damage to the temporal lobe is most likely to result in: a. Memory loss b. Impaired vision c. Difficulties with language comprehension d. Loss of motor coordination Answer: c. Difficulties with language comprehension Rationale: The temporal lobe is primarily involved in auditory processing and language comprehension. Damage to this area is often associated with language-related deficits such as aphasia.
3. The chemical messengers that transmit signals between

5. The primary motor cortex is located in which lobe of the brain? a. Frontal lobe b. Parietal lobe c. Occipital lobe d. Temporal lobe Answer: a. Frontal lobe Rationale: The primary motor cortex is located in the frontal lobe and is responsible for controlling voluntary muscle movements.
6. Which of the following is responsible for relaying sensory information to the cerebral cortex? a. Cerebellum b. Hippocampus c. Thalamus d. Amygdala Answer: c. Thalamus Rationale: The thalamus serves as a relay station for sensory information, sending signals to the appropriate regions of the cerebral cortex for further processing and interpretation.
7. The phenomenon known as neuroplasticity refers to:

a. The ability of the brain to change and adapt throughout an individual's lifespan b. The destruction of neurons due to prolonged exposure to stress c. The gradual loss of memory and cognitive abilities with age d. The process by which neurotransmitters are synthesized and released into the synaptic cleft Answer: a. The ability of the brain to change and adapt throughout an individual's lifespan Rationale: Neuroplasticity is the brain's ability to reorganize and rewire itself by forming new neural connections in response to learning, experiences, and environmental changes.

8. Which part of the brain is responsible for regulating sleep and wakefulness? a. Amygdala b. Cerebellum c. Reticular formation d. Hippocampus Answer: c. Reticular formation Rationale: The reticular formation is a network of nerve cells located in the brainstem that plays a critical role in

11. Damage to the occipital lobe is most likely to result in: a. Impaired memory b. Loss of motor coordination c. Visual disturbances d. Difficulties with language comprehension Answer: c. Visual disturbances Rationale: The occipital lobe is responsible for visual processing. Damage to this area can result in various visual disturbances, including partial or complete blindness, visual hallucinations, and difficulties with visual perception.
12. Information processing in the brain involves communication between neurons through: a. Sensory receptors b. Hormones c. Neurotransmitters d. Blood vessels Answer: c. Neurotransmitters Rationale: Information processing in the brain occurs through the transmission of signals between neurons via neurotransmitters, which are chemicals that allow communication across synapses.

13. Which of the following structures plays a vital role in learning and memory? a. Basal ganglia b. Amygdala c. Hippocampus d. Thalamus Answer: c. Hippocampus Rationale: The hippocampus, located within the medial temporal lobe, is involved in the formation and consolidation of long-term memories and spatial navigation.
14. Which part of the brain is responsible for coordinating voluntary muscle movements and maintaining balance and posture? a. Cerebrum b. Cerebellum c. Medulla oblongata d. Pons Answer: b. Cerebellum Rationale: The cerebellum, located at the back of the brain, is primarily responsible for coordinating voluntary movements, maintaining balance, and fine-tuning motor

Answer: a) Cerebellum Rationale: The cerebellum is primarily responsible for motor coordination and balance. Damage to this area often results in impaired motor function and coordination. Question 2: Which of the following neurotransmitters is associated with mood regulation and is often targeted in the treatment of depression? a) Serotonin b) Dopamine c) GABA d) Acetylcholine Answer: a) Serotonin Rationale: Serotonin is a neurotransmitter known for its role in regulating mood, and many antidepressant medications work by targeting serotonin levels in the brain. Question 3: Damage to the myelin sheath would most directly affect which process in the nervous system? a) Saltatory conduction b) Synaptic transmission c) Neurotransmitter release d) Action potential initiation Answer: a) Saltatory conduction Rationale: The myelin sheath facilitates saltatory

conduction, which is the rapid transmission of action potentials along the axon. Damage to the myelin sheath would disrupt this process. Question 4: A patient presents with difficulty understanding language and expressing themselves. Which area of the brain is likely affected? a) Broca's area b) Wernicke's area c) Temporal lobe d) Parietal lobe Answer: b) Wernicke's area Rationale: Wernicke's area is essential for language comprehension and expression. Damage to this area often results in language difficulties. Question 5: Which part of the nervous system is responsible for the "fight or flight" response to stress? a) Sympathetic nervous system b) Parasympathetic nervous system c) Enteric nervous system d) Central nervous system Answer: a) Sympathetic nervous system Rationale: The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for activating the body's "fight or flight" response during times of stress or danger.

brain? a) Frontal lobe b) Occipital lobe c) Temporal lobe d) Parietal lobe Answer: a) Frontal lobe Rationale: The primary motor cortex, responsible for voluntary motor movements, is located in the frontal lobe of the brain. Question 9: Which of the following is a function of the hypothalamus? a) Regulation of body temperature b) Memory formation c) Visual processing d) Auditory processing Answer: a) Regulation of body temperature Rationale: The hypothalamus plays a crucial role in regulating body temperature, among other essential functions such as hunger, thirst, and hormone regulation. Question 10: Damage to the hippocampus would most likely result in impairment of which cognitive function? a) Memory b) Language c) Executive function

d) Attention Answer: a) Memory Rationale: The hippocampus is closely associated with the formation and retrieval of memories, and damage to this area often leads to memory impairment. Question 11: Which of the following is a function of the blood-brain barrier? a) Regulating the passage of substances into the brain b) Producing cerebrospinal fluid c) Transmitting sensory information d) Initiating voluntary muscle movements Answer: a) Regulating the passage of substances into the brain Rationale: The blood-brain barrier selectively regulates the passage of substances into the brain, protecting it from harmful agents and maintaining a stable internal environment. Question 12: Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with the inhibition of neural activity and is often targeted by anti- anxiety medications? a) GABA b) Glutamate c) Dopamine d) Serotonin

Question 15: Which part of the brain is responsible for integrating sensory information and coordinating motor responses? a) Cerebellum b) Basal ganglia c) Thalamus d) Brainstem Answer: c) Thalamus Rationale: The thalamus acts as a relay station for sensory information and is involved in coordinating motor responses based on that sensory input. B:

1. A patient with a head injury is admitted to the emergency department. The nurse suspects increased intracranial pressure (ICP) when the patient exhibits which of the following signs? a) Bradycardia b) Hypertension c) Dilated pupils d) All of the above Answer: D. All of the above are signs of increased ICP, which can result from brain swelling, bleeding, or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) accumulation. Increased ICP can

compress brain tissue and impair cerebral blood flow, leading to brain damage or death.

2. A patient with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin), an anticonvulsant drug. The nurse should monitor the patient for which of the following adverse effects of phenytoin? a) Gingival hyperplasia b) Hypoglycemia c) Thrombocytopenia d) Hepatotoxicity Answer: A. Gingival hyperplasia, or overgrowth of gum tissue, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, especially in children and young adults. The nurse should instruct the patient to practice good oral hygiene and visit the dentist regularly. The other options are not associated with phenytoin.
3. A patient with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa (L-dopa), a dopamine precursor that crosses the blood- brain barrier and is converted to dopamine in the brain. The nurse should teach the patient to avoid which of the following foods while taking levodopa? a) Bananas b) Cheese c) Eggs d) Spinach Answer: B. Cheese and other foods high in tyramine, such as aged meats, red wine, and soy sauce, should be avoided while taking levodopa, as they can cause a hypertensive

Answer: D. All of the above interventions are appropriate for a patient with dysphagia due to ALS. Thickened liquids and pureed foods are easier to swallow than thin liquids and solid foods. Small, frequent meals and snacks prevent fatigue and allow more time for chewing and swallowing. Elevating the head of the bed reduces the risk of aspiration by facilitating gravity and preventing reflux.

6. A patient with Alzheimer's disease is prescribed donepezil (Aricept), a cholinesterase inhibitor that slows the breakdown of acetylcholine in the brain and enhances cognitive function. The nurse should monitor the patient for which of the following side effects of donepezil? a) Diarrhea b) Insomnia c) Bradycardia d) All of the above Answer: D. All of the above are common side effects of donepezil, as increased acetylcholine levels can stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system and cause gastrointestinal disturbances, sleep problems, and cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse should report any severe or persistent side effects to the prescriber.
7. A patient with a spinal cord injury at the level of T6 is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia, a life-threatening condition characterized by severe hypertension, bradycardia, headache, sweating, and flushing above the level of injury. The nurse should identify which of the following as the most likely cause of autonomic dysreflexia

in this patient? a) Bladder distension b) Hypovolemia c) Hypoglycemia d) Hypothermia Answer: A. Bladder distension, due to urinary retention or a blocked catheter, is the most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia in patients with spinal cord injuries above the level of T6. The stimulus triggers a massive sympathetic response below the level of injury, resulting in vasoconstriction and hypertension. The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch sense the hypertension and send signals to the brain, which activates the parasympathetic nervous system above the level of injury, causing bradycardia and vasodilation. The nurse should immediately relieve the bladder distension and elevate the head of the bed to lower the blood pressure and prevent complications such as stroke, seizure, or cardiac arrest.

8. A patient with a history of migraine headaches is prescribed sumatriptan (Imitrex), a serotonin receptor agonist that constricts cranial blood vessels and relieves pain and inflammation. The nurse should instruct the patient to avoid which of the following medications while taking sumatriptan? a) Acetaminophen (Tylenol) b) Ibuprofen (Advil) c) Fluoxetine (Prozac) d) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) Answer: C. Fluoxetine and other selective serotonin