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Nursing Exam Questions and Answers, Exams of Nursing

A set of nursing exam questions and answers covering various topics such as patient autonomy, evidence-based practice, cultural competence, nursing informatics, disaster response and management, nursing process, communication in nursing, and ethics in nursing. The questions are designed to test the knowledge and understanding of nursing students on these topics.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 01/23/2024

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NURSING 2100
Introduction to Professional Nursing
COMPLETED EXAM
2024
1. Which of the following best describes the concept of patient autonomy in
nursing practice?
a) The nurse's ability to make decisions on behalf of the patient
b) The patient's right to make informed decisions about their healthcare
c) The nurse's responsibility to prioritize patients' needs over their own
d) The patient's obligation to follow the nurse's instructions
Answer: b) The patient's right to make informed decisions about their
healthcare
Rationale: Patient autonomy refers to the patient's ability to make independent
decisions about their healthcare based on their own values and beliefs. Nurses
should respect and support this right, providing patients with the necessary
information to make informed decisions.
2. Which of the following is an example of evidence-based practice in nursing?
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NURSING 2100

Introduction to Professional Nursing

COMPLETED EXAM

  1. Which of the following best describes the concept of patient autonomy in nursing practice? a) The nurse's ability to make decisions on behalf of the patient b) The patient's right to make informed decisions about their healthcare c) The nurse's responsibility to prioritize patients' needs over their own d) The patient's obligation to follow the nurse's instructions Answer: b) The patient's right to make informed decisions about their healthcare Rationale: Patient autonomy refers to the patient's ability to make independent decisions about their healthcare based on their own values and beliefs. Nurses should respect and support this right, providing patients with the necessary information to make informed decisions.
  2. Which of the following is an example of evidence-based practice in nursing?

a) Following personal beliefs and experiences when making patient care decisions b) Relying solely on textbook guidelines without adapting them to individual patients c) Incorporating the latest research evidence and clinical expertise in decision- making d) Basing decisions solely on what the healthcare facility dictates Answer: c) Incorporating the latest research evidence and clinical expertise in decision-making Rationale: Evidence-based practice involves integrating the best available research evidence with clinical expertise and patients' preferences to inform nursing decisions.

  1. In the nursing profession, cultural competence refers to: a) The ability to communicate effectively with patients of different cultures b) The understanding and appreciation of diverse cultural practices and beliefs c) The provision of care only to people from one's own cultural background d) The promotion of one's own cultural beliefs and practices Answer: b) The understanding and appreciation of diverse cultural practices and beliefs Rationale: Cultural competence in nursing requires nurses to have knowledge of and sensitivity towards different cultural practices, beliefs, and values to

which refers to fairness and equality in healthcare, and autonomy, which emphasizes respect for patients' decisions and preferences.

  1. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse researcher? a) Providing direct care to patients b) Conducting studies to advance nursing knowledge and practice c) Educating new nurses on evidence-based practice d) Coordinating and managing nursing departments Answer: b) Conducting studies to advance nursing knowledge and practice Rationale: Nurse researchers focus on conducting research studies to generate new knowledge and evidence to improve nursing practice.
  2. The nursing process is a systematic framework that guides nursing care. Which of the following accurately represents the sequential steps of the nursing process? a) Assessment, planning, implementation, evaluation b) Planning, evaluation, assessment, implementation c) Evaluation, implementation, assessment, planning d) Implementation, planning, evaluation, assessment Answer: a) Assessment, planning, implementation, evaluation Rationale: The nursing process follows a sequential order starting with

assessment (collecting patient data), then planning (setting goals and interventions), implementation (carrying out planned interventions), and evaluation (assessing the effectiveness of interventions).

  1. What is the primary purpose of the National Patient Safety Goals (NPSGs) developed by The Joint Commission? a) To improve patient satisfaction scores b) To increase healthcare costs c) To reduce healthcare-associated infections and medical errors d) To shorten hospital stays Answer: c) To reduce healthcare-associated infections and medical errors Rationale: The National Patient Safety Goals aim to improve patient safety and prevent harm in healthcare settings by addressing issues such as healthcare- associated infections, medication errors, and patient identification.
  2. Which of the following nursing theories emphasizes the importance of caring relationships between nurses and patients? a) Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs b) Jean Watson's Theory of Human Caring c) Dorothea Orem's Self-Care Deficit Theory d) Hildegard Peplau's Theory of Interpersonal Relations Answer: b) Jean Watson's Theory of Human Caring

Answer: b) The application of computer science and information management in nursing practice Rationale: Nursing informatics involves the integration of computer science and information management in nursing practice to enhance patient care, healthcare delivery, and clinical decision-making.

  1. In nursing education, the concept of "lifelong learning" refers to: a) Acquiring knowledge and skills only during initial nursing education b) Obtaining continuing education credits to maintain licensure c) Seeking additional degrees and certifications throughout one's career d) Continually seeking new knowledge and improving nursing practice Answer: d) Continually seeking new knowledge and improving nursing practice Rationale: Lifelong learning in nursing involves the continuous acquisition of knowledge and skills throughout one's career to provide safe and evidence- based care, adapt to changes in healthcare, and enhance professional growth.
  2. What is the nurse's primary role during disaster response and management? a) Providing emotional support to affected individuals b) Predicting the occurrence of future disasters c) Distributing emergency supplies to affected communities d) Providing immediate and appropriate medical care

Answer: d) Providing immediate and appropriate medical care Rationale: During disaster response and management, nurses play a crucial role in providing immediate and appropriate medical care to affected individuals, addressing their healthcare needs and ensuring their safety.

  1. What is the primary purpose of terminal disinfection in healthcare settings? a) To eliminate all microorganisms from the environment b) To prevent the transmission of infectious diseases c) To reduce healthcare-associated infections d) To improve the aesthetics of the healthcare facility Answer: b) To prevent the transmission of infectious diseases Rationale: Terminal disinfection aims to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases by eliminating or reducing the number of microorganisms present in the environment, reducing the risk of cross-contamination.
  2. Which of the following nursing interventions aims to prevent pressure ulcers in bedridden patients? a) Regular repositioning and turning of the patient b) Administration of analgesics for pain management c) Use of full physical restraints to limit movement d) Increasing caloric intake through enteral feeding

to reduce the impact of disease or injury, such as by rehabilitation, palliation, or support.

  1. What are the five steps of the nursing process and what is the purpose of each step? (10 marks) Answer: The five steps of the nursing process are assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation. The purpose of each step is as follows:
  • Assessment: to collect and analyze data about the client's health status, needs, preferences, and resources.
  • Diagnosis: to identify the client's actual or potential health problems or strengths based on the assessment data.
  • Planning: to establish goals and outcomes for the client's care and select appropriate interventions to achieve them.
  • Implementation: to execute the planned interventions in a safe and effective manner.
  • Evaluation: to measure the extent to which the goals and outcomes have been met and modify the plan of care as needed.
  1. What are the three types of communication in nursing and give an example of each? (6 marks) Answer: The three types of communication in nursing are verbal, nonverbal, and written. Verbal communication is the use of spoken or written words to convey information or feelings, such as by asking questions, giving instructions,

or providing feedback. Nonverbal communication is the use of body language, gestures, facial expressions, eye contact, tone of voice, or silence to convey information or feelings, such as by nodding, smiling, frowning, or sighing. Written communication is the use of documents, charts, reports, or electronic media to convey information or feelings, such as by documenting assessments, interventions, or outcomes.

  1. What are the four principles of ethics in nursing and what do they mean? ( marks) Answer: The four principles of ethics in nursing are autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence, and justice. Autonomy means respecting the client’s right to make informed decisions about their own care and honoring their preferences and values. Beneficence means doing good for the client and promoting their well-being. Nonmaleficence means avoiding harm or minimizing risk for the client. Justice means treating the client fairly and equitably and distributing resources according to their needs. DS1:Which of the following is not considered to be within the scope of preventive health services? a) Maternal and child health services b) Immunization c) Health education d) Health screening and diagnosis

*b) The service center of the health service is the patient. c) Social Rehabilitation works to adapt to society and profession due to disability. covers. d) Physicians, nurses, therapists, dieticians, pharmacists, social workers, psychologists and other indirect caregivers are the members of the health care team. e) Working as a team reduces costs in healthcare institutions.

  1. DS1, Visa1: Which of the following is at the center of the healthcare team. a) Nurse b) Physician *c) Sick/healthy individual, family, community d) Varies according to the service provided e) Social worker
  2. DS1: Which of the following is one of the environmental factors that affect the formation of a safe environment? a) Age b) Stress c) Migrations *d) Noise e) Industrialization
  3. DS1: Which of the following is not a nurse's responsibilities during the admissions process? a) Identification of the patient b) Assistance with physical examination c) Acquaintance and orientation d) Arrangement of the patient unit *e) Administration of drugs
  1. DS1: When does a successful discharge plan begin? a) One day before the patient is discharged b) One week before the patient is discharged c) The day the patient is discharged *d) When the patient is hospitalized e) None
  2. DS1:Which of the following is not a correct practice when opening a sterile package set. a) Hands are washed. b) The sterile set is opened in a dry and clean area above waist level. *c) The end of the sterile set, which is close to itself, is opened first. d) The object is kept in line of sight. e) If the set coming from sterilization is damp, it is not used. 11.DS1: Which is the most common nosocomial infection? *a) Urinary tract infections b) Surgical wound infections c) Bacteremia d) pneumonia d) Sepsis 12.DS1: Which of the following is or are the most risky places for nosocomial infections? I-Intensive care units II-Cardiology clinics III-Physical therapy clinics IV-Neonatal clinics V-Neurosurgery clinics a) I only b) I and IV

d) The bed can be preheated. *e) All of them.

  1. DS1: Which of the following is not a physical locator? a) Skin fixers b) Elbow fasteners c) Body locators d) Hand detectors *e) Chemical fixers
  2. DS1: Which of the following is not a physical fixation purpose? a) To prevent agitated patients from falling out of bed. b) Calming the patients. *c) To reduce sensory deprivation. d) Maintaining proper posture in bedridden patients. e) To prevent patients from harming themselves by restricting their movement. 19.DS1:Which of the following statements is false for physical fasteners? a) It should only be applied by professionals. b) Prone fixation should not be made. c) Family members should be informed. d) Never use rope. *e) It can be applied if the nurse deems it necessary. 20.DS1:What type of restraints to ensure patient safety in wheelchair should it be used? a) Skin fixers b) Elbow fasteners c) Hand foot fasteners *d) Fasteners in the form of seat belts e) Stock fasteners
  1. DS2: Which of the following factors does not predispose an individual to infection? a) Newborn and old age period *b) Adolescence period c) Fatigue d) Stress e) Genetic predisposition
  2. DS2,EX4: Which of the following is one of the applications to break the chain of infection isn't it? a) To comply with the rules of asepsis b) Using appropriate antibiotics c) to immunize *d) Performing a blood culture on the patient e) Applying isolation
  3. DS2,ÜS2: Which of the following is the general principle in providing a safe environment in the hospital? a) Protecting the patient from infections b) Protecting the patient from accidents *c) To prevent the patient from being harmed by the hospital d) Making the patient feel at home e) Avoiding noise
  4. DS2: Which of the following is one of the reasons that increase blood pressure? a) Decreased blood volume b) Decreased peripheral vascular resistance c) Decreased cardiac output d) Increased elasticity of the arterial wall *e) Rapid and uncontrolled intravenous fluid administration

*c) Disinfection d) Sterilization e) Sanitation

  1. DS2: Which of the following is a behavior contrary to the principles of body mechanics? a) The soles must be in full contact with the ground *b) The two feet should be kept parallel to each other c) The trunk should be kept upright d) The face and trunk should be facing the direction of the movement. e) Before an object is lifted, its weight must be estimated.
  2. DS2: What type of wound group do ecchymosis and hematomas belong to? *a) Off b) Open c) Laceration d) Penetration e) Perforation
  3. DS2: Which of the following is one of the scales used to assess pressure ulcer risk?isn't it? a) Norton Scale b) Braden Scale c) Gosnell Scale *d) Numerical Scale e) Waterlow Scale
  4. DS2: Which of the following is the result of loosening of the ligaments between the tars and metatarsals What is the disorder caused by falling of the sole of the foot? a) Foot Drop

b) Hallux Varus c) Hallux Valgus d) Scoliosis *e) Pes Planus

  1. DS2: Which of the following is an increase in the normal cupping in the waist? *a) Lordosis b) Scoliosis c) Kyphosis d) Low shoulder e) Pes Planus
  2. DS2: Which of the following is not one of the effects of inactivity on the organism? *a) The workload of the heart decreases b) Muscle volume decreases c) The risk of atrophy and contracture increases d) Increased risk of incontinence or retention e) Sensory stimuli decrease
  3. DS2: Which of the following is the circular motion of the joints on an axis? a) Abduction b) Inversion *c) Circumduction d) Flexion e) Eversion
  4. Visa 1: Which of the following is included in the scope of rehabilitative health services? a) helping to adapt to the profession due to disability b) teaching to live with limits