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Psychopharmacology Practice Tests: Antidepressants and Their Side Effects, Exams of Nursing

Practice tests and q&a sessions for students studying psychopharmacology, specifically focusing on antidepressants and their mechanisms of action, side effects, and interactions. Topics covered include selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (ssris), tricyclic antidepressants (tcas), monoamine oxidase inhibitors (maois), and serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (snris). Questions cover various aspects of antidepressants, such as their classes, mechanisms of action, side effects, and interactions with other medications and foods.

Typology: Exams

2022/2023

Available from 02/21/2024

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NURS 752
PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY
Antidepressants
Practice tests
Q & A
2024
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NURS 752

PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY

Antidepressants

Practice tests

Q & A

Question 1: Which class of antidepressants is known for its mechanism of action involving the inhibition of serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake? A) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) B) Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) C) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) D) Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) Answer: D) Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) Rationale: SNRIs work by inhibiting the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine, leading to increased levels of these neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft. Question 2: Which of the following side effects is commonly associated with tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)? A) Weight gain B) Anticholinergic effects C) Sexual dysfunction D) Serotonin syndrome Answer: B) Anticholinergic effects Rationale: TCAs have anticholinergic properties, leading to side effects such as dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, and urinary retention. Question 3: A patient who is prescribed a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) should be educated about avoiding which of the

Answer: C) Seizures Rationale: Bupropion is associated with a risk of lowering the seizure threshold, so patients should be closely monitored for seizure activity. Question 6: Which of the following antidepressants is commonly used in the management of neuropathic pain? A) Venlafaxine (Effexor) B) Duloxetine (Cymbalta) C) Fluoxetine (Prozac) D) Amitriptyline (Elavil) Answer: D) Amitriptyline (Elavil) Rationale: Tricyclic antidepressants, such as amitriptyline, have analgesic properties and are often used to manage neuropathic pain. Question 7: A patient who is prescribed an MAOI should be educated about the potential for drug interactions, particularly with which of the following medication classes? A) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) B) Beta-blockers C) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) D) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors Answer: C) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) Rationale: Concurrent use of MAOIs and SSRIs can lead to serotonin syndrome, a potentially life-threatening condition.

Question 8: Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of trazodone, particularly at high doses? A) Hypertensive crisis B) Priapism C) Hepatotoxicity D) Serotonin syndrome Answer: B) Priapism Rationale: Trazodone, especially at higher doses, has been associated with the development of priapism, a prolonged and painful erection. Question 9: A patient who is prescribed an SNRI should be counseled about the potential for which of the following withdrawal symptoms upon discontinuation of the medication? A) Nausea and vomiting B) Hypertensive crisis C) Serotonin syndrome D) Anticholinergic effects Answer: A) Nausea and vomiting Rationale: Abrupt discontinuation of SNRIs can lead to withdrawal symptoms, including nausea, vomiting, headache, and dizziness. Question 10: Which of the following is a potential side effect of mirtazapine (Remeron)? A) Diarrhea B) Weight loss

hepatotoxicity. Answer: C) It should be used with caution due to the potential for increased suicidal ideation. Rationale: Fluoxetine and other SSRIs are associated with an increased risk of suicidal ideation in children and adolescents, requiring close monitoring when prescribed in this population. Question 13: Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of venlafaxine (Effexor) at higher doses? A) QT prolongation B) Hypoglycemia C) Hypertensive crisis D) Hepatotoxicity Answer: C) Hypertensive crisis Rationale: Venlafaxine can lead to dose-dependent increases in blood pressure, potentially resulting in hypertensive crises, especially at higher doses. Question 14: Which of the following medications is classified as a serotonin modulator and stimulator? A) Trazodone B) Nortriptyline C) Phenelzine D) Paroxetine Answer: A) Trazodone Rationale: Trazodone acts as a serotonin modulator and stimulator, influencing serotonin levels in the brain.

Question 15: A patient who is prescribed an MAOI should be educated about the need to avoid which of the following over-the- counter medications to prevent the risk of serotonin syndrome? A) Diphenhydramine B) Ibuprofen C) Pseudoephedrine D) Acetaminophen Answer: C) Pseudoephedrine Rationale: Pseudoephedrine, a common decongestant, can potentiate the effects of serotonin when combined with MAOIs, increasing the risk of serotonin syndrome.

  1. Tricyclic antidepressants are contraindicated in which of the following conditions?
    • A. Glaucoma
    • B. Brain tumor
    • C. Bronchial asthma
    • D. Essential hypertension
    • Answer: A. Glaucoma
    • Rationale: Tricyclic antidepressants can increase intraocular pressure and worsen glaucoma.
  2. Which antipsychotic drug has a prolonged action?
    • A. Trifluperazine
  • C. Haloperidol
  • D. Promethazine
  • Answer: D. Promethazine
  • Rationale: Promethazine is commonly used to treat akathisia.
  1. What is the prophylactic maintenance serum level of lithium?
  • A. 0.2-0.8 mEq/L
  • B. 0.7-1.2 mEq/L
  • C. 1.2-2.0 mEq/L
  • D. 2.0-2.5 mEq/L
  • Answer: B. 0.7-1.2 mEq/L
  • Rationale: Maintaining serum lithium levels within this range helps prevent relapse.
  1. Which class of antidepressants is typically used as a first-line treatment for major depressive disorder? a. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) b. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) c. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) d. Atypical antidepressants Answer: a. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) Rationale: SSRIs are considered first-line agents for treating depression due to their favorable side effect profile and efficacy.
  2. Which neurotransmitter is targeted by SSRIs to increase

levels in the brain and improve depressive symptoms? a. Dopamine b. Serotonin c. Norepinephrine d. GABA Answer: b. Serotonin Rationale: SSRIs work by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin, leading to increased levels of the neurotransmitter in the brain.

  1. Which side effect is commonly associated with tricyclic antidepressants due to their anticholinergic effects? a. Weight gain b. Sedation c. Dry mouth d. Sexual dysfunction Answer: c. Dry mouth Rationale: TCAs have significant anticholinergic effects, leading to dry mouth, constipation, and blurred vision.
  2. Which class of antidepressants requires dietary restrictions due to the risk of a dangerous hypertensive crisis when combined with certain foods containing tyramine? a. SSRIs b. TCAs c. MAOIs d. Atypical antidepressants
  1. Which medication is commonly used as an augmentation strategy in treatment-resistant depression due to its dual mechanism of action as a serotonin antagonist and reuptake inhibitor (SARI)? a. Nortriptyline b. Lithium c. Buproprion d. Trazodone Answer: d. Trazodone Rationale: Trazodone acts as a SARI by blocking serotonin receptors and inhibiting its reuptake, making it a common augmentation strategy in treatment-resistant depression.
  2. Which side effect is commonly associated with the use of bupropion as an antidepressant? a. Weight gain b. Sedation c. Sexual dysfunction d. Insomnia Answer: d. Insomnia Rationale: Bupropion is known to cause insomnia as a common side effect due to its stimulant properties.
  3. Which class of antidepressants is commonly avoided in elderly patients due to their anticholinergic effects and potential risk of falls? a. SSRIs

b. TCAs c. MAOIs d. Atypical antidepressants Answer: b. TCAs Rationale: TCAs have significant anticholinergic effects and are associated with orthostatic hypotension, increasing the risk of falls in elderly patients.

  1. Which SSRI is commonly used off-label for the treatment of premature ejaculation due to its delayed ejaculation side effect? a. Fluoxetine b. Sertraline c. Escitalopram d. Paroxetine Answer: d. Paroxetine Rationale: Paroxetine is commonly used off-label for the treatment of premature ejaculation due to its strong potential for delaying ejaculation.
  2. Which antidepressant medication is associated with the potential risk of QT prolongation and should be used with caution in patients with cardiac conditions? a. Citalopram b. Mirtazapine c. Trazodone d. Lithium

of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) due to its serotonergic effects and low risk of drug interactions? a. Duloxetine b. Venlafaxine c. Fluoxetine d. Escitalopram Answer: c. Fluoxetine Rationale: Fluoxetine is commonly used for the treatment of PTSD due to its serotonergic effects and low risk of drug interactions.

  1. Which antidepressant is commonly used as a first-line agent for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) due to its dual mechanism of action as a serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor? a. Fluoxetine b. Bupropion c. Duloxetine d. Mirtazapine Answer: c. Duloxetine Rationale: Duloxetine is commonly used as a first-line agent for GAD due to its dual mechanism of action on serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake.