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NURS 6630 FINAL EXAM: WALDEN UNIVERSITY
QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST
UPDATE 2023
QUESTION 1
What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression who needs to manage the top-down cortical control and the excessive drive from striatal hyperactivity? A. Stimulants B. Antidepressants C. Antipsychotics D. SSRIs QUESTION 2 The PMHNP is selecting a medication treatment option for a patient who is exhibiting psychotic behaviors with poor impulse control and aggression. Of the available treatments, which can help temper some of the adverse effects or symptoms that are normally caused by D2 antagonism? A. First-generation, conventional antipsychotics B. First-generation, atypical antipsychotics C. Second-generation, conventional antipsychotics D. Second-generation, atypical antipsychotics QUESTION 3 The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association with aggressive behaviors in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a standard dose of atypical antipsychotics? A. The doses are based on achieving 100% D2 receptor occupancy.
B. The doses are based on achieving a minimum of 80% D2 receptor occupancy. C. The doses are based on achieving 60% D2 receptor occupancy. D. None of the above. QUESTION 4 Why does the PMHNP avoid prescribing clozapine (Clozaril) as a first-line treatment to the patient with psychosis and aggression? A. There is too high a risk of serious adverse side effects. B. It can exaggerate the psychotic symptoms. C. Clozapine (Clozaril) should not be used as high-dose monotherapy. D. There is no documentation that clozapine (Clozaril) is effective for patients who are violent. QUESTION 5 The PMHNP is caring for a patient on risperidone (Risperdal). Which action made by the PMHNP exhibits proper care for this patient? A. Explaining to the patient that there are no risks of EPS B. Prescribing the patient 12 mg/dail C. Titrating the dose by increasing it every 5–7 days D. Writing a prescription for a higher dose of oral risperidone (Risperdal) to achieve high D receptor occupancy QUESTION 6 The PMHNP wants to prescribe Mr. Barber a mood stabilizer that will target aggressive and impulsive symptoms by decreasing dopaminergic neurotransmission. Which mood stabilizer will the PMHNP select? A. Lithium (Lithane) B. Phenytoin (Dilantin) C. Valproate (Depakote) D. Topiramate (Topamax)
D. Adderall QUESTION 8 The PMHNP understands that slow-dose extended release stimulants are most appropriate for which patient with ADHD? A. 8-year-old patient B. 24-year-old patient C. 55-year-old patient D. 82-year-old patient QUESTION 9 A patient is prescribed D-methylphenidate, 10-mg extended-release capsules. What should the PMHNP include when discussing the side effects with the patient? A. The formulation can have delayed actions when taken with food. B. Sedation can be a common side effect of the drug. C. The medication can affect your blood pressure. D. This drug does not cause any dependency. QUESTION 10 The PMHNP is teaching parents about their child’s new prescription for Ritalin. What will the PMHNP include in the teaching? A. The second dose should be taken at lunch. B. There are no risks for insomnia. C. There is only one daily dose, to be taken in the morning. D. There will be continued effects into the evening. QUESTION 11 A young patient is prescribed Vyvanse. During the follow-up appointment, which comment made by the patient makes the PMHNP think that the dosing is being done incorrectly? A. “I take my pill at breakfast.” B. “I am unable to fall asleep at night.” C. “I feel okay all day long.”
D. “I am not taking my pill at lunch.”
B. Patient who has cerebrovascular disease
C. Patientwho is pregnant D. Patient with kidney disease QUESTION 16 An 18-year-old female with a history of frequent headaches and a mood disorder is prescribed topiramate (Topamax), 25 mg by mouth daily. The PMHNP understands that this medication is effective in treating which condition(s) in this patient? A. Migraines B. Bipolar disorder and depression C. Pregnancy-induced depression D. Upper back pain QUESTION 17 The PMHNP is treating a patient for fibromyalgia and is considering prescribing milnacipran (Savella). When prescribing this medication, which action is the PMHNP likely to choose? A. Monitor liver function every 6 months for a year and then yearly thereafter. B. Monitor monthly weight. C. Split the daily dose into two doses after the first day. D. Monitor for occult blood in the stool. QUESTION 18 The PMHNP is assessing a patient she has been treating with the diagnosis of chronic pain. During the assessment, the patient states that he has recently been having trouble getting to sleep and staying asleep. Based on this information, what action is the PMHNP most likely to take? A. Order hydroxyzine (Vistaril), 50 mg PRN or as needed B. Order zolpidem (Ambien), 5mg at bedtime C. Order melatonin, 5mg at bedtime D. Order quetiapine (Seroquel), 150 mg at bedtime QUESTION 19 The PMHNP is assessing a female patient who has been taking lamotrigine (Lamictal) for migraine prophylaxis. After discovering that the patient has reached the maximum dose of this medication, the PMHNP decides to change the patient’s medication to zonisamide (Zonegran). In addition to evaluating this patient’s day-to-day activities, what should the PMHNP ensure that
B. Order ibuprofen (Motrin) because she may need long-term treatment and chronic pain
is not uncommon. C. Order naproxen (Naprosyn) because she may have arthritis and chronic pain is not uncommon. D. Order Morphine and physical therapy. QUESTION 23 The PMHNP is assessing a 49-year-old male with a history of depression, post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), alcoholism with malnutrition, diabetes mellitus type 2, and hypertension. His physical assessment is unremarkable with the exception of peripheral edema bilaterally to his lower extremities and a chief complaint of pain with numbness and tingling to each leg 5/10. The PMHNP starts this patient on a low dose of doxepin (Sinequan). What is the next action that must be taken by the PMHNP? A. Orders liver function tests. B. Educate the patient on avoiding grapefruits when taking this medication. C. Encourage this patient to keep fluids to 1500 ml/day until the swelling subsides. D. Order a BUN/Creatinine test. QUESTION 24 The PMHNP is evaluating a 30-year-old female patient who states that she notices pain and a drastic change in mood before the start of her menstrual cycle. The patient states that she has tried diet and lifestyle changes but nothing has worked. What will the PMHNP most likely do? A. Prescribe Estrin FE 24 birth control B. Prescribe ibuprofen (Motrin), 800 mg every 8 hours as needed for pain C. Prescribe desvenlafaxine (Pristiq), 50 mg daily D. Prescribe risperidone (Risperdal), 2 mg TID QUESTION 25 A patient with chronic back pain has been prescribed a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). How does the PMHNP describe the action of SNRIs on the inhibition of pain to the patient? A. “The SNRI can increase noradrenergic neurotransmission in the descending spinal pathway to the dorsal horn.” B. “The SNRI can decrease noradrenergic neurotransmission in the descending spinal pathway to the dorsal horn.” C. “The SNRI can reduce brain atrophy by slowing the gray matter loss in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.”
QUESTION 30
The PMHNP is attempting to treat a patient’s chronic pain by having the agent bind the open channel conformation of VSCCs to block those channels with a “use-dependent” form of inhibition. Which agent will the PMHNP most likely select? A. Pregabalin (Lyrica) B. Duloxetine (Cymbalta) C. Modafinil (Provigil) D. Atomoxetine (Strattera) QUESTION 31 A patient with irritable bowel syndrome reports chronic stomach pain. The PMHNP wants to prescribe the patient an agent that will cause irrelevant nociceptive inputs from the pain to be ignored and no longer perceived as painful. Which drug will the PMHNP prescribe? A. Pregabalin (Lyrica) B. Gabapentin (Neurontin) C. Duloxetine (Cymbalta) D. B and C QUESTION 32 The PMHNP wants to use a symptom-based approach to treating a patient with fibromyalgia. How does the PMHNP go about treating this patient? A. Prescribing the patient an agent that ignores the painful symptoms by initiating a reaction known as “fibro-fog” B. Targeting the patient’s symptoms with anticonvulsants that inhibit gray matter loss in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex C. Matching the patient’s symptoms with the malfunctioning brain circuits and neurotransmitters that might mediate those symptoms D.None of the above QUESTION 33
The PMHNP is working with the student to care for a patient with diabetic peripheral neuropathic pain. The student asks the PMHNP why SSRIs are not consistently useful in treating this particular patient’s pain. What is the best response by the PMHNP? A. “SSRIs only increase norepinephrine levels.” B. “SSRIs only increase serotonin levels.” C. “SSRIs increase serotonin and norepinephrine levels.” D. “SSRIs do not increase serotonin or norepinephrine levels.” QUESTION 34 A patient with gambling disorder and no other psychiatric comorbidities is being treated with pharmacological agents. Which drug is the PMHNP most likely to prescribe? A. Antipsychotics B. Lithium C. SSRI D. Naltrexone QUESTION 35 Kevin is an adolescent who has been diagnosed with kleptomania. His parents are interested in seeking pharmacological treatment. What does the PMHNP tell the parents regarding his treatment options? A. “Naltrexone may be an appropriate option to discuss.” B. “There are many medicine options that treat kleptomania.” C. “Kevin may need to be prescribed antipsychotics to treat this illness.” D. “Lithium has proven effective for treating kleptomania.” QUESTION 36 Which statement best describes a pharmacological approach to treating patients for impulsive aggression? A. Anticonvulsant mood stabilizers can eradicate limbic irritability. B. Atypical antipsychotics can increase subcortical dopaminergic stimulation. C. Stimulants can be used to decrease frontal inhibition.
QUESTION 40
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who reports excessive arousal at nighttime. What could the PMHNP use for a time-limited duration to shift the patient’s brain from a hyperactive state to a sleep state? A. Histamine 2 receptor antagonist B. Benzodiazepines C. Stimulants D. Caffeine QUESTION 41 The PMHNP is caring for a patient who experiences too much overstimulation and anxiety during daytime hours. The patient agrees to a pharmacological treatment but states, “I don’t want to feel sedated or drowsy from the medicine.” Which decision made by the PMHNP demonstrates proper knowledge of this patient’s symptoms and appropriate treatment options? A. Avoiding prescribing the patient a drug that blocks H1 receptors B. Prescribing the patient a drug that acts on H2 receptors C. Stopping the patient from taking medicine that unblocks H1 receptors D. None of the above QUESTION 42 The PMHNP is performing a quality assurance peer review of the chart of another PMHNP. Upon review, the PMHNP reviews the chart of an older adult patient in long-term care facility who has chronic insomnia. The chart indicates that the patient has been receiving hypnotics on a nightly basis. What does the PMHNP find problematic about this documentation? A. Older adult patients are contraindicated to take hypnotics. B. Hypnotics have prolonged half-lives that can cause drug accumulation in the elderly. C. Hypnotics have short half-lives that render themselves ineffective for older adults.
D. Hypnotics are not effective for “symptomatically masking” chronic insomnia in the elderly.
QUESTION 46
A patient with chronic insomnia asks the PMHNP if they can first try an over-the-counter (OTC) medication before one that needs to be prescribed to help the patient sleep. Which is the best response by the PMHNP? A. “There are no over-the-counter medications that will help you sleep.” B. “You can choose from one of the five benzo hypnotics that are approved in the United States.” C. “You will need to ask the pharmacist for a non-benzodiazepine medicine.” D. “You can get melatonin over thecounter, which will help with sleep onset.” QUESTION 47 A patient with chronic insomnia and depression is taking trazodone (Oleptro) but complains of feeling drowsy during the day. What can the PMHNP do to reduce the drug’s daytime sedating effects? A. Prescribe the patient an antihistamine to reverse the sedating effects B. Increasing the patient’s dose and administer it first thing in the morning C. Give the medicine at night and lower the dose D. None of the above QUESTION 48 The PMHNP is teaching a patient with a sleep disorder about taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl). The patient is concerned about the side effects of the drug. What can the PMHNP teach the patient about this treatment approach? A. “It can cause diarrhea.” B. “It can cause blurred vision.” C. “It can cause increased salivation.” D. “It can cause heightened cognitive effects.”
QUESTION 49
Parents of a 12-year-old boy want to consider attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) medication for their son. Which medication would the PMHNP start? Methylphenidate Amphetamine salts Atomoxetine All of the above could potentially treat theirson’s symptoms. QUESTION 50 An adult patient presents with a history of alcohol addiction and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Given these comorbidities, the PMHNP determines which of the following medications may be the best treatment option? A. Methylphenidate (Ritalin, Concerta) B. Amphetamine C. Atomoxetine (Strattera) D. Fluoxetine (Prozac) QUESTION 51 An 8-year-old patient presents with severe hyperactivity, described as “ants in his pants.” Based on self-report from the patient, his parents, and his teacher; attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is suspected. What medication is the PMNHP most likely to prescribe? A. Methylphenidate (Ritalin, Concerta) B. Clonidine (Catapres) C. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) D.Desipramine (Norpramin) QUESTION 52 9-year-old female patient presents with symptoms of both attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and oppositional defiant disorder. In evaluating her symptoms, the PMHNP determines that which of the following medications may be beneficial in augmenting stimulant medication? A. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) B. Methylphenidate (Ritalin, Concerta)
