Download NURS 653 - Exam 2 - Modules 4, 5, 6, 7 (GI, Respiratory, Cardiac, Hematology Meds) 2024/20 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
NURS 653 - Exam 2 - Modules 4, 5, 6, 7 (GI,
Respiratory, Cardiac, Hematology Meds)
Bile Acid Resins work by: a. Inhibiting cholesterol synthesis in the liver b. Enhancing the breakdown of LDL cholesterol in the bloodstream c. Binding bile acids in the intestines, forming insoluble complexes excreted in feces d. Increasing the absorption of dietary cholesterol - correct answer c. Binding bile acids in the intestines, forming insoluble complexes excreted in feces A patient has been prescribed Bile Acid Resins to manage their cholesterol levels. They complain of experiencing flatulence, bloating, abdominal pain, and heartburn after taking the medication. What is the most appropriate advice for this patient? A) Take the medication with meals and avoid carbonated water to minimize gastrointestinal discomfort. B) Take the medication with a glass of carbonated water to improve its effectiveness. C) Take the medication on an empty stomach for better absorption. D) Continue taking the medication as prescribed without any changes. - correct answer A) Take the medication with meals and avoid carbonated water to minimize gastrointestinal discomfort. Which of the following statements regarding the use of Bile Acid Resins is accurate when considering triglyceride levels? A) Bile Acid Resins are contraindicated if a patient has triglyceride levels above 300 mg/dL. B) Bile Acid Resins should be used in all patients with elevated triglycerides above 300 mg/dL. C) Bile Acid Resins are safe to use, regardless of triglyceride levels. D) Bile Acid Resins are specifically indicated for patients with extremely high triglyceride levels. - correct answer A) Bile Acid Resins are contraindicated if a patient has triglyceride levels above 300 mg/dL. Which of the following is an unwanted effect associated with the use of Bile Acid Resins in some patients? A) Increased VLDL (very-low-density lipoprotein) and triglyceride levels B) Reduced HDL (high-density lipoprotein) cholesterol levels C) Decreased LDL (low-density lipoprotein) cholesterol levels D) Enhanced cholesterol absorption in the small intestine - correct answer A) Increased VLDL (very-low-density lipoprotein) and triglyceride levels ***To optimize the effectiveness of Bile Acid Resins, patients should be advised to take certain medications, such as thyroid hormones and antibiotics, and fat soluble vitamins at least _____ before or _____ after taking the resin. *** a. 15 minutes before or 30 minutes after b. 1 hour before or 4 hour after c. 2 hours before or 2 hours after
d. 4 hours before or 4 hours after - correct answer b. 1 hour before or 4 hour after Niacin, also known as Vitamin B3, is primarily used to ___ even though MOA is not fully understood a. Lower blood pressure b. Increase insulin production c. Improve digestion d. Lower cholesterol levels - correct answer d. Lower cholesterol levels One of the common side effects of Niacin is flushing of the face and neck. To mitigate this side effect, patients are advised to: a. Avoid direct sunlight exposure b. Take an antihistamine c. Reduce their Niacin dosage d. Take an aspirin 30 minutes before Niacin administration - correct answer d. Take an aspirin 30 minutes before Niacin administration A patient with a history of gout is being evaluated for the management of their dyslipidemia. What is the most appropriate concern regarding the use of Niacin (nicotinic acid) in this patient population? A) Niacin can increase uric acid levels B) Niacin can cause liver toxicity. C) Niacin may result in vitamin D deficiency. D) Niacin may lead to weight gain. - correct answer A) Niacin can increase uric acid levels Which of the following patients should NOT take Niacin (nicotinic acid) for the management of dyslipidemia? A) A patient with diabetes mellitus. B) A patient with a family history of heart disease. C) A patient with a history of high blood pressure. D) A patient with a known allergy to shellfish. - correct answer A) A patient with diabetes mellitus. In a patient with elevated triglyceride levels as the primary concern, which class of lipid-lowering medications is often considered the most suitable option? A) Gemfibrozil B) Ezetimibe C) Lovastatin D) Niacin - correct answer A) Gemfibrozil Fibric Acid Derivatives are contraindicated in patients with all of the following conditions except? a. History of gallstones
b. anticoagulant therapy for deep vein thrombosis c. bronchodilation in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) d. glycemic control in type 1 diabetes - correct answer a. lipid-lowering diet for the management of hypertriglyceridemia A patient is prescribed Omega-3 Fatty Acids as a dietary supplement to support heart health. Which of the following medications should be used with caution or avoided when taking Omega- 3 Fatty Acids due to an increased risk of bleeding? A) Medications that increase bleeding risk such as warfarin, heparin, aspirin, or clopidogrel B) Antihypertensive medications such as nifedipine and enalapril C) Medications for acid reflux such as omeprazole and Famotidine D) Antibiotics such as amoxicillin and doxycycline - correct answer A) Medications that increase bleeding risk such as warfarin, heparin, aspirin, or clopidogrel What class of drugs do Alirocumab (Praulent) and Evolucumab (Repatha) belong to? a. Bile Acid Resins b. Fibric Acid Derivatives c. PCSK9 Inhibitors d. Calcium Channel Blockers - correct answer c. PCSK9 Inhibitors How are PCSK9 Inhibitors typically used in the management of high cholesterol? a. As standalone therapy for primary hypercholesterolemia b. As adjunct to statins for familial hypercholesterolemia c. As the first-line treatment for hypertension d. As prophylaxis for deep vein thrombosis - correct answer b. As adjunct to statins for familial hypercholesterolemia Ezetimibe (Zetia) is a medication used to lower cholesterol levels. What is its primary mechanism of action (MOA)? a. Inhibiting cholesterol synthesis in the liver b. Increasing VLDL production in the liver c. Binding bile acids in the intestines, forming insoluble complexes d. Acting at the brush border of the small intestine and inhibiting cholesterol absorption - correct answer d. Acting at the brush border of the small intestine and inhibiting cholesterol absorption If Ezetimibe (Zetia) is taken with bile acid sequestrant, it should be taken --- before or --- after bile acid. a. 2 hours before, 4 hours after b. 4 hours before, 2 hours after c. 1 hour before, 1 hour after d. 2 hours before, 2 hours after - correct answer a. 2 hours before, 4 hours after
A patient on statin therapy reports muscle-related symptoms such as pain, tenderness, and weakness. What should be the next step in managing this patient? a. Increase the statin dosage to achieve better cholesterol control. b. Discontinue the statin and monitor for resolution of symptoms. c. Immediately start another statin at the same dose. d. Prescribe a non-statin cholesterol-lowering medication. - correct answer b. Discontinue the statin and monitor for resolution of symptoms. A patient taking a statin experiences severe muscle-related symptoms along with significantly elevated CPK levels. What condition should be evaluated for in this patient? a. Hypertension b. Hyperglycemia c. Rhabdomyolysis d. Anemia - correct answer c. Rhabdomyolysis What is the primary mechanism of action of Statins? a. Blocking cholesterol synthesis in the small intestine b. Increasing VLDL production in the liver c. Inhibiting the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate in the liver d. Promoting cholesterol absorption in the small intestine - correct answer c. Inhibiting the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate in the live When is the maximum therapeutic effect of statins typically observed after starting therapy? a. 1-2 days b. 1-2 weeks c. 4-6 weeks d. 3-6 months - correct answer c. 4-6 weeks Which of the following is a not a contraindication for the use of statins? a. Pregnancy b. Unexplained aminotransferase levels c. Mild alcohol consumption d. Active liver disease - correct answer c. Mild alcohol consumption What is the recommended time of day to take statins to maximize their effectiveness? a. In the morning b. At lunchtime c. In the afternoon d. At bedtime - correct answer d. At bedtime Which laboratory parameter should be checked before initiating statin therapy and monitored periodically during treatment?
When are the maximum effects of statin therapy typically seen in terms of lowering cholesterol levels? A) Within a few days of starting treatment B) After 1-2 weeks of treatment C) After 4-6 weeks of therapy D) Only after several months of continuous treatment - correct answer C) After 4-6 weeks of therapy A patient is currently taking multiple medications for various health conditions and has moderately elevated cholesterol levels. Which statin medication is often considered a good choice for this patient due to its relatively low potential for drug interactions and efficacy in such cases? A) Simvastatin B) Atorvastatin C) Rosuvastatin D) Pravastatin - correct answer D) Pravastatin Why should patients taking statin medications be advised to avoid grapefruit juice? A) Grapefruit juice can cause an allergic reaction when combined with statins. B) Grapefruit juice may lead to gastrointestinal discomfort when taken with statins. C) Grapefruit juice can reduce the effectiveness of statin medications. D) Grapefruit juice can increase the levels of statins in the bloodstream, potentially leading to adverse effects - correct answer D) Grapefruit juice can increase the levels of statins in the bloodstream, potentially leading to adverse effects A patient on a statin medication presents with mild to moderate muscle pain. CPK levels are 5 times the upper limit of normal. What is the recommended approach? A) Continue the statin medication at the current dose. B) Increase the dose of the statin for better cholesterol control. C) Immediately stop the statin medication. D) Reduce the dose of the statin or switch to another statin. - correct answer D) Reduce the dose of the statin or switch to another statin. A patient who has been taking a statin medication reports experiencing severe muscle pain. Upon evaluation, their CPK levels are found to be exceeding 10 times the upper limit of normal. What is the appropriate action to take? A) Continue the statin medication at the current dose. B) Immediately stop the statin medication. C) Reduce the dose of the statin or switch to another statin. D) Start another medication to manage the muscle pain while continuing the statin - correct answer B) Immediately stop the statin medication.
A patient who has been taking a statin medication reports severe muscle pain and weakness, along with dark-colored urine. CPK levels are significantly elevated, and the patient is diagnosed with rhabdomyolysis. What is the appropriate action to take regarding the statin medication? A) Continue the statin medication at the current dose. B) Increase the dose of the statin for better cholesterol control. C) Reduce the dose of the statin or switch to another statin. D) Stop the statin medication immediately. - correct answer D) Stop the statin medication immediately. Which of the following conditions is not considered a contraindication for the use of statin medications? A) Pregnancy B) Uncontrolled liver issues C) Increased alcohol consumption D) Mild muscle soreness - correct answer D) Mild muscle soreness A patient has been prescribed a statin medication to manage their cholesterol levels. To monitor for potential hepatotoxicity, what is the recommended course of action? A) Check liver function tests (LFTs) before starting the statin and then annually thereafter. B) Monitor LFTs every 2-3 years during statin therapy. C) LFTs are not necessary while on statin therapy. D) Check LFTs only if the patient experiences muscle pain. - correct answer A) Check liver function tests (LFTs) before starting the statin and then annually thereafter. For optimal absorption and effectiveness, when is the best time to take lovastatin? A) First thing in the morning on an empty stomach B) With breakfast C) With evening meal D) Just before bedtime - correct answer C) With evening meal Which of the following statements is true regarding PCSK9 inhibitors, a class of antilipemic agents used to lower cholesterol levels? A) PCSK9 inhibitors are among the least expensive cholesterol-lowering medications on the market. B) PCSK9 inhibitors do not require prior authorization for prescription. C) PCSK9 inhibitors are administered orally as a pill. D) PCSK9 inhibitors are the most expensive antilipemic agents, require prior authorization, and are given subcutaneously. - correct answer D) PCSK9 inhibitors are the most expensive antilipemic agents, require prior authorization, and are given subcutaneously. What is the primary mechanism of action of Thiazide Diuretics in the kidneys? A) Inhibition of aldosterone secretion
A) Hydrochlorothiazide B) Chlorthalidone C) Metolazone D) Indapamide - correct answer B) Chlorthalidone Which of the following statements about the locations of action for diuretics are NOT correct? (Multiple answers) A) Thiazide Diuretics - thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle and early distal tubules B) Thiazide Diuretics - proximal and distal tubules, as well as the loop of Henle C) Loop Diuretics like Furosemide and ethacrynic acid - proximal and distal tubules, as well as the loop of Henle. D) Bumetanide, a loop diuretic, has additional action in the proximal tubule and is more chloruretic. E) Potassium Sparing Diuretics - distal tubule F) Potassium Sparing Diuretics - proximal tubule as the loop of Henle. - correct answer B) Thiazide Diuretics - proximal and distal tubules, as well as the loop of Henle. F) Potassium Sparing Diuretics - proximal tubule as the loop of Henle. Which of the following conditions or situations are NOT considered contraindications for the use of Loop Diuretics? A) Anuric B) Renal decompensation C) Hepatic coma D) Hypersensitivity to sulfonylureas - correct answer B) Renal decompensation Which of the following statements accurately differentiates Loop Diuretics from Thiazide Diuretics? (Multiple answers) A) Thiazide Diuretics have a ceiling effect, while Loop Diuretics do not. B) Loop Diuretics have a ceiling effect, while Thiazide Diuretics do not. C) Thiazide Diuretics are preferred for patients with renal decompensation, whereas Loop Diuretics are contraindicated in such cases. D) Loop Diuretics are preferred for patients with renal decompensation, whereas Thiazide Diuretics are contraindicated in such cases. - correct answer A) Thiazide Diuretics have a ceiling effect, while Loop Diuretics do not. D) Loop Diuretics are preferred for patients with renal decompensation, whereas Thiazide Diuretics are contraindicated in such cases. A patient with heart failure experiences significant fluid retention and edema. Which of the following medications is often prescribed to help eliminate excess fluid and reduce edema in these patients? A) A beta-blocker B) An angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor C) A calcium channel blocker
D) Lasix (Furosemide) - correct answer D) Lasix (Furosemide) A patient with heart failure is prescribed a Potassium Sparing Diuretic to manage fluid retention and maintain potassium levels. Which of the following statements regarding the use of potassium salt substitutes is correct for this patient? A) It is safe to use potassium salt substitutes liberally to enhance the diuretic effect of the medication. B) Potassium salt substitutes should be used without restriction to ensure adequate potassium intake. C) The patient should avoid potassium salt substitutes as they may lead to excessive potassium levels when combined with Potassium Sparing Diuretics. D) The patient can safely combine potassium salt substitutes with Potassium Sparing Diuretics to improve heart function. - correct answer C) The patient should avoid potassium salt substitutes as they may lead to excessive potassium levels when combined with Potassium Sparing Diuretics. Which of the following classes of antiarrhythmic drugs are considered broad spectrum, meaning they are effective in treating various types of arrhythmias? A) Class 1A Antiarrhythmics B) Class 1B Antiarrhythmics C) Class 1C Antiarrhythmics D) Class 2 Antiarrhythmics E) Class 3 Antiarrhythmics F) Class 4 Antiarrhythmics - correct answer A) Class 1A Antiarrhythmics Which of the following classes of antiarrhythmic drugs are effective for both supraventricular and ventricular ARR? A) Class 1A Antiarrhythmics B) Class 1B Antiarrhythmics C) Class 1C Antiarrhythmics D) Class 2 Antiarrhythmics E) Class 3 Antiarrhythmics F) Class 4 Antiarrhythmics - correct answer A) Class 1A Antiarrhythmics Which of the following classes of antiarrhythmic drugs can actually cause arrhythmias? A) Class 1A Antiarrhythmics B) Class 1B Antiarrhythmics C) Class 1C Antiarrhythmics D) Class 2 Antiarrhythmics E) Class 3 Antiarrhythmics F) Class 4 Antiarrhythmics - correct answer C) Class 1C Antiarrhythmics Which of the following classes of antiarrhythmic drugs in beta blockers?
Which of the following Class III antiarrhythmic drugs are known for their efficacy in treating both supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias? (Multiple Answers) A) Sotalol B) Digoxin C) Amiodarone D) Verapamil E) Quinidine - correct answer A) Sotalol C) Amiodarone A patient taking Amiodarone for arrhythmia management develops respiratory symptoms and cough. What should be the initial step in evaluating and managing this potential adverse effect? A) Monitor thyroid function tests (TFT). B) Check liver function tests (LFTs). C) Perform a chest X-ray or CT scan of the chest. D) Discontinue Amiodarone and start corticosteroid therapy. You now discover patient has severe pumonary fibrosis. What are your next steps? A) Monitor thyroid function tests (TFT). B) Check liver function tests (LFTs). C) Perform a chest X-ray or CT scan of the chest. D) Discontinue Amiodarone and start corticosteroid therapy. - correct answer C) Perform a chest X-ray or CT scan of the chest. D) Discontinue Amiodarone and start corticosteroid therapy. A patient on Amiodarone therapy develops signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism. What is the recommended approach for managing this adverse effect? A) Monitor thyroid function tests (TFT). B) Perform a chest X-ray. C) Discontinue Amiodarone immediately. D) Start corticosteroid therapy. - correct answer A) Monitor thyroid function tests (TFT). A patient taking Amiodarone experiences visual disturbances and complains of eye discomfort. What is the recommended course of action for managing this potential adverse effect? A) Monitor liver function tests (LFTs). B) Discontinue Amiodarone immediately. C) Get annual eye check-ups. D) Perform an EKG. - correct answer C) Get annual eye check-ups.
A patient on Amiodarone therapy experiences elevated liver enzymes on routine blood tests. What should be the next step in managing this potential adverse effect? A) Discontinue Amiodarone and start corticosteroid therapy. B) Monitor thyroid function tests (TFT). C) Perform an EKG. D) Monitor liver function tests (LFTs). - correct answer D) Monitor liver function tests (LFTs). A patient taking Amiodarone develops bradycardia and heart block. How should this adverse effect be managed? A) Get annual eye check-ups. B) Monitor thyroid function tests (TFT). C) Discontinue Amiodarone and start corticosteroid therapy. D) Monitor EKG. - correct answer D) Monitor EKG. Which of the following classes of antiarrhythmic drugs is Calcium Channel Blockers in? A) Class 1A Antiarrhythmics B) Class 1B Antiarrhythmics C) Class 1C Antiarrhythmics D) Class 2 Antiarrhythmics E) Class 3 Antiarrhythmics F) Class 4 Antiarrhythmics - correct answer F) Class 4 Antiarrhythmics Which of the following classes of antiarrhythmic drugs is effective in automatic or reentrant tachycardias which arise from or use SA or AV nodes? A) Class 1A Antiarrhythmics B) Class 1B Antiarrhythmics C) Class 1C Antiarrhythmics D) Class 2 Antiarrhythmics E) Class 3 Antiarrhythmics F) Class 4 Antiarrhythmics - correct answer F) Class 4 Antiarrhythmics Which of the following best describes the primary antiarrhythmic effect of Digoxin? A) Slows ventricular rate in supraventricular arrhythmias B) Blocks sodium channels in ventricular cells C) Enhances ventricular contractility D) Activates potassium channels in atrial cells - correct answer A) Slows ventricular rate in supraventricular arrhythmias What is the main use of Adenosine in the treatment of arrhythmias? A) Converting ventricular fibrillation to sinus rhythm B) Converting paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) to sinus rhythm
C) Atropine - correct answer C) Atropine Which of the following classes of antiarrhythmic drugs do you see increase in QRS wave? A) Class 1 B) Class 2 C) Class 3 D) Class 4 - correct answer A) Class 1 Which of the following classes of antiarrhythmic drugs do you see increase in QT wave? A) Class 1 B) Class 2 C) Class 3 D) Class 4 - correct answer C) Class 3 Which of the following classes of antiarrhythmic drugs do you see increase in PR wave and decrease in heart rate? A) Class 1 B) Class 2 C) Class 3 D) Class 4 - correct answer B) Class 2 D) Class 4 A patient is prescribed Disopyramide for arrhythmia management. The patient is also taking a medication known to inhibit CYP3A4 activity. What is the likely outcome of co-administering the CYP3A4 inhibitor with Disopyramide? A) The CYP3A4 inhibitor will enhance the metabolism of Disopyramide, leading to lower drug concentrations. B) The CYP3A4 inhibitor will have no effect on Disopyramide metabolism. C) The CYP3A4 inhibitor will lower CYP3A4 activity, resulting in increased concentrations of Disopyramide. D) The CYP3A4 inhibitor will convert Disopyramide into an inactive metabolite. - correct answer C) The CYP3A4 inhibitor will lower CYP3A4 activity, resulting in increased concentrations of Disopyramide. A patient presents to the emergency department with sudden difficulty breathing, wheezing, and shortness of breath. Which medication would you most likely prescribe as the initial treatment? A) Albuterol B) Prednisone C) Diphenhydramine D) Montelukast - correct answer A) Albuterol
What is the primary mechanism of action shared by Short-Acting Beta-Agonists (SABA) and Long-Acting Beta-Agonists (LABA)? A) Stimulate beta 1 receptors, increasing cardiac contractility B) Stimulate beta 2 receptors, increasing cyclic AMP production, and causing bronchial relaxation C) Stimulate alpha 2 receptors, reducing sympathetic outflow D) Stimulate muscarinic receptors, promoting bronchoconstriction - correct answer B) Stimulate beta 2 receptors, increasing cyclic AMP production, and causing bronchial relaxation Which of the following medical conditions can be exacerbated by the use of Short-Acting Beta- Agonists (SABA) and Long-Acting Beta-Agonists (LABA) in patients with asthma or COPD? (Multiple Answers) A) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) B) Cardiovascular disease C) Diabetes mellitus (DM) D) Glaucoma E) Hyperthyroidism F) Osteoporosis G) Seizure disorder H) Allergic rhinitis - correct answer B) Cardiovascular disease C) Diabetes mellitus (DM) D) Glaucoma E) Hyperthyroidism G) Seizure disorder A patient with asthma has been using Albuterol (a Short-Acting Beta-Agonist, SABA) as a rescue inhaler for several years. Recently, the patient has noticed that the medication seems to be less effective in providing relief during asthma attacks. What term best describes this phenomenon? A) Drug resistance B) Tachyphylaxis C) Rebound bronchoconstriction D) Hypersensitivity reaction - correct answer B) Tachyphylaxis Which of the following statements regarding Long-Acting Beta-Agonists (LABA) and their safety profile is accurate? A) LABAs are completely safe and have no serious side effects. B) LABAs have a black box warning for an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. C) LABAs have a black box warning for an increased risk of asthma-related deaths, especially when used alone. D) LABAs are contraindicated in all patients with asthma. - correct answer C) LABAs have a black box warning for an increased risk of asthma-related deaths, especially when used alone.
E) Osteoporosis F) Asthma G) Bladder neck obstruction H) Type 2 diabetes - correct answer B) Glaucoma C) Myasthenia gravis (MG) D) Prostatic hyperplasia G) Bladder neck obstruction Which of the following statements accurately describe the mechanisms of action of Zileuton in the management of respiratory conditions? A) Leukotriene Modifier drugs inhibit 5-lipoxygenase, preventing the synthesis of inflammatory prostaglandins B) Leukotriene Modifier drugs antagonize leukotriene receptors, preventing bronchoconstriction. C) Leukotriene Modifier drugs promote the release of histamine in the airways. D) Leukotriene Modifier drugs inhibit 5-lipoxygenase, preventing the synthesis of inflammatory leukotrienes - correct answer D) Leukotriene Modifier drugs inhibit 5-lipoxygenase, preventing the synthesis of inflammatory leukotrienes Which of the following statements accurately describe the mechanisms of action of Monteleukast and Zafirlukast in the management of respiratory conditions? A) Leukotriene Modifier drugs inhibit 5-lipoxygenase, preventing the synthesis of inflammatory prostaglandins B) Leukotriene Modifier drugs antagonize leukotriene receptors, preventing bronchoconstriction. C) Leukotriene Modifier drugs promote the release of histamine in the airways. D) Leukotriene Modifier drugs inhibit 5-lipoxygenase, preventing the synthesis of inflammatory leukotrienes - correct answer B) Leukotriene Modifier drugs antagonize leukotriene receptors, preventing bronchoconstriction. In which of the following scenarios is the prophylactic use of Leukotriene Modifier drugs most appropriate? A) Treating an acute bronchospastic attack in a patient with asthma. B) Preventing acute bronchospastic attacks in physically active individuals with exercise-induced bronchoconstriction. C) Managing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation. D) Providing relief from allergic rhinitis symptoms. - correct answer B) Preventing acute bronchospastic attacks in physically active individuals with exercise-induced bronchoconstriction. A patient with asthma is prescribed Leukotriene Modifier drugs, specifically montelukast, for the management of their condition. Which of the following statements regarding potential drug interactions involving montelukast is accurate? A) Montelukast has no interactions with other medications, making it safe for use with any hepatically metabolized drugs. B) Montelukast is known to interact with hepatically metabolized medications, potentially affecting their metabolism.
C) Montelukast should not be taken with any drugs that are renally excreted. D) Montelukast should not be taken with any over-the-counter medications. - correct answer B) Montelukast is known to interact with hepatically metabolized medications, potentially affecting their metabolism. What is the primary mechanism of action (MOA) of Cromolyn in the management of respiratory conditions? A) Muscarine antagonist B) Leukotriene modifier drug C) Beta agonist D) Mast cell stabilizer - correct answer D) Mast cell stabilizer What is the primary mechanism of action (MOA) of Cromolyn in the management of respiratory conditions? A) Inhibiting Ca2+ influx into activated mast cells, preventing the release and synthesis of proinflammatory mediators. B) Blocking leukotriene receptors, reducing bronchoconstriction. C) Stimulating beta-2 receptors, causing bronchodilation. D) Antagonizing muscarinic receptors, reducing bronchoconstriction. - correct answer A) Inhibiting Ca2+ influx into activated mast cells, preventing the release and synthesis of proinflammatory mediators. Which of the following medications should be considered as a last resort in the treatment of respiratory conditions due to its complicated side effects? A) Albuterol B) Montelukast C) Fluticasone D) Theophylline - correct answer D) Theophylline What is the primary mechanism of action of Theophylline, a Methylxanthine medication, in the management of respiratory conditions? A) Inhibition of leukotriene receptors, reducing bronchoconstriction. B) Blockade of muscarinic receptors, leading to bronchodilation. C) Inhibition of phosphodiesterase (PDE), resulting in increased cAMP levels and bronchodilation. D) Suppression of histamine release, preventing allergic reactions. - correct answer C) Inhibition of phosphodiesterase (PDE), resulting in increased cAMP levels and bronchodilation. What is the primary mechanism of action of Roflumilast (Daliresp) in the management of respiratory conditions? A) Inhibition of leukotriene synthesis, reducing airway inflammation. B) Blockade of muscarinic receptors, leading to bronchodilation. C) Inhibition of phosphodiesterase 4 (PDE4), increasing cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) levels and modifying the inflammatory response.
