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Pharmacokinetics a. refers to the role of genetic variation on response to a drug. b. refers to an individual's body's therapeutic response to a drug. c. refers to how a drug moves through an individual's body. c. refers to how a drug moves through an individual's body. Pharmacodynamics a. refers to the role of genetic variation on response to a drug. b. refers to how a drug moves through an individual's body. c. refers to an individual's body's therapeutic response to a drug. c. refers to an individual's body's therapeutic response to a drug. Brainpower Read More Pharmacogenomics a. refers to an individual's body's therapeutic response to a drug. b. refers to the role of genetic variation on response to a drug. c. refers to how a drug moves through an individual's body. b. refers to the role of genetic variation on response to a drug.
NURS 617/Nurs 617 Pharmacotherapeutics Final
Exam 2025 latest (100% ACCURATE SUMMER)
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Which of the following statement(s) are true regarding the drug-response relationship? Select one or more: a. Alcohol consumption may interact with prescription medications thereby altering the intended response. b. The prescriber can eliminate all patient noncompliance factors by sufficiently educating the patient c. The ultimate response of a drug is a combination of both the therapeutic and unintended responses to a drug d. The prescriber may need to deviate from the dosage recommended by the manufacturer of the drug a. Alcohol consumption may interact with prescription medications thereby altering the intended response. c. The ultimate response of a drug is a combination of both the therapeutic and unintended responses to a drug d. The prescriber may need to deviate from the dosage recommended by the manufacturer of the drug Water-soluble drugs have good absorption through all the following routes except which one? Select one: a. Enteral b. Intravenous c. Transdermal d. Transrectal c. Transdermal Which one of the following conditions can lead to a cumulative type of adverse drug reaction?
HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors Cholesterol Absorption Inhibitors Answers: Choose ezetimibe (Zetia) gemfibrozil (Lopid) rosuvastatin (Crestor) niacin (Niacor) atorvastatin (Lipitor) colesevelam hydrochloride (WelChol) Bile-Acid Sequestrants: colesevelam hydrochloride (WelChol) HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors: rosuvastatin (Crestor) Fibric Acid Derivatives: gemfibrozil (Lopid) Available Nicotinic Acid Derivatives: niacin (Niacor)
HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors: atorvastatin (Lipitor) Cholesterol Absorption Inhibitors: ezetimibe (Zetia) The NP is evaluating a 53 y/o female with a BMI of 24 and blood pressure 110s/70s. According to JNC-8, the patient is considered to have? a. HTN requiring therapy with a ACE inhibiotor b. HTN requiring therapy with a thiazide-type diuretic c. normal BP d. HTN requiring therapy with a CCB c. normal BP When compared to person's of European ancestry, patients of African ancestry tend to have a reduced blood pressure response with monotherapy on all of the following BP drug classes except: a. CCBs b. Beta Blockers c. ARBs d. ACEIs a. CCBs Match the following term with the correct impact on the heart: Chronotropic
Amlodipine Sotalol Answer 5: Choose Beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist Dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker ACEI Angiotensin receptor antagonist Alpha blocker Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blocker Verapamil: Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blocker Enalapril: ACEI Olmesartan: Angiotensin receptor antagonist Amlodipine: Dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker Sotalol: Beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist
Which of the following drugs commonly indicated for asthma and COPD should be used cautiously in pregnant women in their 3rd trimester. Select one: a. Albuterol (Ventolin) b. Formoterol (Foradil) c. Salmeterol (Serevent) d. Terbutaline (Brethine) d. Terbutaline (Brethine) Which of the following antitussives is a local anesthetic that blocks the propagation of nerve impulses from the sensory nerve endings in the bronchial mucosa? Select one: a. Dextromethorphan b. Guaifenesin c. Benzonatate d. Codeine c. Benzonatate Antihistamines have antagonist activity on (muscarinic) cholinergic receptors which leads to anticholinergic side effects. Which of the following is an anticholinergic side effect. Select one: a. Nasal stuffiness b. Bronchospams c. tachycardia
b. Rx for doxylamine succinate and pyridoxine hydrochloride c. OTC diphenhydramine d. Rx for ondansetron b. Rx for doxylamine succinate and pyridoxine hydrochloride You are seeing a patient in the clinic who is requesting medication for motion sickness to take on a cruise. Knowing the mechanism of action of these medications, what education would you offer regarding anticholingeric side effects? a. blurred vision b. potential constipation c. hiccups d. dry mouth a. blurred vision b. potential constipation d. dry mouth Match each drug with its appropriate drug class: famotidine pantoprazole calcium carbonate ranitidine
misoprostol esomeprazole Answer 6: Choose PPI antacid H- 2 blocker cytoprotective famotidine: H- 2 blocker pantoprazole: PPI calcium carbonate: antacid ranitidine: H- 2 blocker misoprostol: cytoprotective esomeprazole: PPI
Benztropine (Cogentin) Ropinirole (Reqiup) Pramipexole (Mirapex) Trihexyphenidyl (artane) Istradefylline (Nourianz) Answer 8: Choose COMT inhibitor Adenosine Receptor Antagonists Anticholinergic MAO-B Inhibitor Dopamine Agonist Amantadine (Symmetrel): Dopamine Agonist Entacapone (Comtan): COMT inhibitor Safinamide (Xadago): MAO-B Inhibitor
Benztropine (Cogentin): Anticholinergic Ropinirole (Reqiup): Dopamine Agonist Pramipexole (Mirapex): Dopamine Agonist Trihexyphenidyl (artane): Anticholinergic Istradefylline (Nourianz): Adenosine Receptor Antagonists You are working in the ED. A patient presents with an acute psychotic event. You order a risperidone to be given IM. Is this an appropriate order? yes/no No You are working in the ED. A patient presents with an acute psychotic event. You order a risperidone to be given IM. Is this an appropriate order? Select one: True False False
a. hemoglobin A1c b. CBC c. serum glucose d. serum insulin a. hemoglobin A1c Match the generic name insulin with it classification of action: (rapid, short, intermediate, long) Insulin Regular U- 500 Insulin Lispro Insulin Isophane (NPH) Insulin Aspart Regular Insulin Insulin Glargine Insulin Regular U-500: Short Insulin Lispro: Rapid Insulin Isophane (NPH): Intermediate Insulin Aspart: Rapid
Regular Insulin: Short Insulin Glargine: Long Match the drug with the diagnosis it is used to treat: liothyronine dessicated thyroid levothyroxine propylthiouracil methimazole liothyronine: hypothyroidism dessicated thyroid: hypothyroidism levothyroxine: hypothyroidism propylthiouracil: hyperthyroidism methimazole: hyperthyroidism Physiologic actions of the hormone Estrogen include all of the following except:
Acetylsalicylic acid Etodolac Ibuprofen Salsalate Methylprednisolone Diflunisal Answer: Choose NSAID Salicylate Corticosteroid Dexamethasone: Corticosteroid Triamcinolone: Corticosteroid Diclofenac:NSAID
Acetylsalicylic acid: Salicylate Etodolac: NSAID Ibuprofen: NSAID Salsalate: Salicylate Methylprednisolone: Corticosteroid Diflunisal: Salicylate Penicillin G can be administered oral, IM and IV Select one: True False False nafcillin is the only penicillin that is metabolized by the liver
