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NURS 617 Pharm Exam 2 LATEST 2025 (Jean Genzale) COMPLETE QUESTION AND ANSWER Guaranteed, Exams of Nursing

NURS 617 Pharm Exam 2 LATEST 2025 (Jean Genzale) COMPLETE QUESTION AND ANSWER Guaranteed Pass 100% NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice

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NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice
NURS 617 Pharm Exam 2 LATEST 2025 (Jean
Genzale) COMPLETE QUESTION AND ANSWER
Guaranteed Pass 100%
A pediatric patient who weighs 30lbs is prescribed Prednisolone 1.5mg / kg / day as a " burst
therapy " for asthma exacerbation. Please calculate a dose in whole number of mg for a total
daily dose of Prednisolone
20
All of the following therapies are used as acute therapy for a cluster headache except
a. Intranasal lidocaine
b. Intranasal sumatriptan ( imitrex )
c. Ergotamine derivative
d. Verapamil
d. Verapamil
A disadvantage to the use of nicotinic acid ( niacin ) for hyperlipidemia is ?
a. It is associated with constipation
b. it may cause a life - threatening myopathy
c. It commonly produces flushing in the face and neck area
d. It will decrease the absorption of other oral drugs given simultaneously
c. It commonly produces flushing in the face and neck area
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Download NURS 617 Pharm Exam 2 LATEST 2025 (Jean Genzale) COMPLETE QUESTION AND ANSWER Guaranteed and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

NURS 617 Pharm Exam 2 LATEST 2025 (Jean

Genzale) COMPLETE QUESTION AND ANSWER

Guaranteed Pass 100%

A pediatric patient who weighs 30lbs is prescribed Prednisolone 1.5mg / kg / day as a " burst therapy " for asthma exacerbation. Please calculate a dose in whole number of mg for a total daily dose of Prednisolone 20 All of the following therapies are used as acute therapy for a cluster headache except a. Intranasal lidocaine b. Intranasal sumatriptan ( imitrex ) c. Ergotamine derivative d. Verapamil d. Verapamil A disadvantage to the use of nicotinic acid ( niacin ) for hyperlipidemia is? a. It is associated with constipation b. it may cause a life - threatening myopathy c. It commonly produces flushing in the face and neck area d. It will decrease the absorption of other oral drugs given simultaneously c. It commonly produces flushing in the face and neck area

All of the following respiratory agents are safe to use in pregnancy except a. brompheniramine ( dimetane ) b. potassium iodide c. hydrocortisone d. dextromethorphan ( Delsym ) b. potassium iodide antihistamines have antagonistic activity on cholinergic receptors leading to anticholinergic adverse effects. Examples of anticholinergic adverse effects include a. bronchospasm b. nasal stuffiness c. pruritus d. tachycardia d. tachycardia beta blockers are used therapeutically in patients with angina a. decrease the time allowed for coronary blood flow b. increase cardiac output C. increase the time that the heart is in diastole d. increase myocardial oxygen consumption C. increase the time that the heart is in diastole

Although most antiemetics also produce sedation , which of the following is the least likely to have this effect a. Dronabinol ( marinol ) b. Ondansetron ( zofran ) C. Promethazine ( Phenergan ) d. Trimethobenzamide ( Tigan ) b. Ondansetron ( zofran ) Beta blockers must be used with caution in patients who have heart failure. Which of the following statements describe possible consequences of slowing the heart rate in a patient with HF? a. May increase perfusion of coronary arteries b. May increase cardiac contractility C. May increase myocardial oxygen supply d. May decrease cardiac output to a critical level d. May decrease cardiac output to a critical level Bile acid sequestrants a. Are all considered pregnancy category D b. Are activated from a prodrug to an active form in the liver c. Reduce the amount of cholesterol stored in adipose tissue

d. Require close monitoring of hepatic function c. Reduce the amount of cholesterol stored in adipose tissue Chlamydial pneumonia should be treated with the following suggested antimicrobial? a. Amoxicillin ( Amoxil ) b. Amoxicillin - clavulanate ( Augmentin ) c. Azithromycin ( Zithromax ) d. Ceftriaxone ( rocephin ) c. Azithromycin ( Zithromax ) Calcium channel blockers a. Block calcium channels inayocardial cells resulting in decreased myocardial contraction b. Cause increased heart rate by speeding conductance of electrical cells C. Decrease calcium movement into the extracellular environment d. Have negative effects on glucose levels in diabetic patients a. Block calcium channels inayocardial cells resulting in decreased myocardial contraction Centrally acting alpha II adrenergic agents a. Interact with alpha II receptors on the peripheral vascular system b. Increases venous return ; thereby decreasing heart rate C. Result in a mild to moderate increase in cardiac output

d. Sodium docusate ( Colace ) a. Bisacodyl ( doculax ) Hyperkalemia is a side effect of which of the following drugs a. Chlorthalidone ( Hgroton ) b. Furosemide ( Lasix ) c. Hydrochlorothiazide ( Hydrodiuril ) d. Spironolactone ( Aldactone ) d. Spironolactone ( Aldactone ) Inhalational formations of a drug are absorbed very quickly because a There are no natural defenses against inhaled particles b. Of the enormous blood supply at the alveolar capillary membranes C. There is a small alveolar membrane surface area d. They will be absorbed equally from both the lungs and the digestive tract b. Of the enormous blood supply at the alveolar capillary membranes Many classes can be used for migraine prophylaxis. Which of the following classes of drugs has an FDA indication for preventive use with migraines a. Beta blockers b. MAOIS

C. SSRIS

d. Tricyclic antidepressants a. Beta blockers Selective Beta 1 blockers a. Are safer to use in diabetic patients than nonselective beta blockers b. Can cause improvement in the triglyceride and HDL levels c. Commonly result in mildly increased anxiety. d. Often precipitate bronchospasm in patients with asthma even in low doses a. Are safer to use in diabetic patients than nonselective beta blockers In treating patients with heart failure , which statement about digoxin is true a. It has been shown to increase survival b. It has a high therapeutic index c. It reduces symptoms associated with atrial fibrillation d. It should not be given to patients with liver disease c. It reduces symptoms associated with atrial fibrillation In patients with chronic CHF , which drug class has been shown to increase life expectancy a. ACE inhibitors b. Cardiac glycosides

b. The combination improves compliance in long term hypertensive therapy c. The potassium sparing diuretic offsets the potential for hypokalemia often seen with the thiazides d. The potential risk of reflex tachycardia is reduced c. The potassium sparing diuretic offsets the potential for hypokalemia often seen with the thiazides The cornerstone of moderate persistent asthma drug therapy is the use of a. Inhaled corticosteroids b. Mast cell stabilizers C. Oral theophylline d. Short acting beta agonist a. Inhaled corticosteroids In the elderly population , which H2 receptor antagonist is considered safest? a. Cimetidine ( Tagamet ) b. Famotidine ( Pepcid ) C. Nizatadine ( Axid ) d. Ranitidine ( Zantac b. Famotidine ( Pepcid )

Long term use of antacids can lead to serum electrolyte and mineral imbalances which may cause adverse effects such as a. Dysgeusia b. Hypotension c. Nephrolithiasis d. Polyuria c. Nephrolithiasis The drug of choice in pneumonia for a previously healthy individual and no comorbidities a. Amoxicillin ( high dose ) b. Amoxicillin- clavulanate ( Augmentin ) c. Macrolide ( Azithromycin ) d. Respiratory fluoroquinolone ( Levofloxacin c. Macrolide ( Azithromycin ) Which of the following therapies have NOT been shown to be of any value in COPD a. Antibiotics b. Leukotriene receptor antagonists C. Muscarinic agents d. Oxygen b. Leukotriene receptor antagonists

Which statement is true about adjunctive therapy for migraine headaches a. Butalbital is safe to use during pregnancy B. It should be reserved for cases where serotonin agonists are ineffective c. Narcotic therapy should be limited to injectable to discourage self - administration d. Metoclopramide may serve a dual purpose in relieving both disease symptoms and adverse drug effects. d. Metoclopramide may serve a dual purpose in relieving both disease symptoms and adverse drug effects. Which of the following gastrointestinal agents can be used for both constipation and diarrhea a. Bulk forming agents b. Saline laxatives c. Stimulant agents d. Stool softeners a. Bulk forming agents Which of the following agents are responsible for increasing the LES tone a. Alcohol b. Calcium channel blockers. c. Metoclopramide d. Tobacco c. Metoclopramide

Which of the following nasal decongestants is contraindicated in pregnancy a. Ephedrine b. Oxymetazoline ( Afrin ) c. Phenylephrin ( neo - synephrine ) d. Pseudoephedrine ( Sudafed ) b. Oxymetazoline ( Afrin ) Which of the following antiemetics has the following disadvantages : may cause diarrhea ; commonly produce EPS symptoms ; arrhythmias are possible ; and contraindicated in depression a. Droperidol ( Inapsine ) b. Metoclopramide ( Reglan ) C. Ondansetron ( Zofran ) d. Promethazine ( Phenergan ) b. Metoclopramide ( Reglan ) Which of the following drugs are indicated for susceptible infections of the conjunctiva and corneal ulcer a. Erythromycin ( Ilotycin ) b. Sulfacetamide ( Bleph - 10 ) C. Ciprofloxacin ( ciloxan )

d. Tolerance and physical dependence do not occur with continuous use of this medication b. Nitrates commonly cause headaches with initial doses of the drug Which of the following drugs commonly used to treat patients with headaches is considered safe in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters of pregnancy? a. Erotamine ( Ergostat ) b. Ketorolac ( Toradol ) c. Ondansetron ( Zofran ) d. Almotriptan ( Axert ) c. Ondansetron ( Zofran ) Which lab test should be monitored to detect adverse drug reaction common with statins a. Glucose b. Liver function test C. Potassium d. White blood cells b. Liver function test Which drug results in pharmacological blockade of sodium and chloride co - transport at the distal convoluted tubule a. Bumetanide ( bumex ) b. Spironolactone ( Aldactone )

c. Chlorothiazide ( diuril ) d. Furosemide ( Lasix ) c. Chlorothiazide ( diuril ) Which of the following ophthalmic antimicrobials exerts its pharmacologic effect by inhibition of DNA gyrase a. Azithromycin ( azasite ) b. Ciprofloxacin ( ciloxan ) c. Tobramycin ( Tobrex ) d. Sulfacetamide ( sulamyd ) b. Ciprofloxacin ( ciloxan ) Which of the following is an advantage of scopolamine for motion sickness? a. Available in many formulations - long duration of action with transdermal formulation ( 72 hours ) b. Less sedating than the antihistamine antiemetics c. Onset of action 30 - 60 minutes with oral and parenteral forms d. All of the above d. All of the above Which of the following agents use dot treat TB in pregnant women have demonstrated teratogenic effects on the fetus

Which of the following antidepressants are indicated to be administered to children as young as 6 years of age? SATA a. Imipramine ( Tofranil ) b. Paroxetine ( Paxil ) c. Sertraline ( Zoloft ) d. Tranylcypromine ( Parnate ) a. Imipramine ( Tofranil ) c. Sertraline ( Zoloft ) Ethanol withdrawal symptoms include? SATA a. Insomnia b. Hypotension c. Hypothermia d. Seizures a. Insomnia d. Seizures Theophylline serum levels are increased in which of the following? a. Cigarette smokers b. Congestive heart failure c. Neonates and older adults

d. Concomitant use of oral contraceptives b. Congestive heart failure c. Neonates and older adults d. Concomitant use of oral contraceptives Treatment of patients with COPD includes any of the following EXCEPT? a. Beta agonists b. Leukotrienes c. Methylxanthine d. Muscarinic agents anticholinergics b. Leukotrienes Which of the following antitussives has the disadvantage of hypersensitivity manifested by bronchospasm? a. Benzonatate ( Tessalon ) b. Codeine c. Dextromethorphan d. Diphenhydramine ( Benadryl ) a. Benzonatate ( Tessalon ) Which if yhe following H2 blockers in commonly associated with gynecomastia?